ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of throat pain, odynophagia, and fever. Physical examination reveals tonsillar enlargement with yellow-white exudates and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS). GAS is the most likely organism responsible for this presentation, known as acute bacterial tonsillitis. GAS commonly causes symptoms such as throat pain, odynophagia, fever, tonsillar enlargement with exudates, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Streptococcal pharyngitis is a common bacterial infection of the throat caused by GAS. The other options are less likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae typically causes pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae is associated with respiratory tract infections. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, which presents with different symptoms than those described in the question.
Question 2 of 9
During surgery, the nurse observes a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness. What is the nurse's immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse is to notify the anesthesia provider immediately (Option D). This is crucial because a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness during surgery could indicate a serious issue related to anesthesia administration. Notifying the anesthesia provider promptly allows for quick assessment and intervention to address the underlying cause, potentially preventing complications or even saving the patient's life. Administering a reversal agent (Option A) without proper evaluation by the anesthesia provider could be dangerous. Documenting the change in the patient's chart (Option B) is important but not the most immediate action. Checking the patient's vital signs (Option C) is also important but may not provide immediate insight into the cause of the change in consciousness.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a history of nephrolithiasis presents with sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin. On physical examination, there is tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal colic due to ureteral calculus. The sudden-onset severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin along with tenderness over the costovertebral angle and hematuria are classic symptoms of kidney stones (ureteral calculus). The pain results from the obstruction of urine flow by the stone, leading to increased pressure and spasm in the ureter. Acute pyelonephritis (choice A) presents with fever, chills, and systemic symptoms. Renal artery embolism (choice B) typically presents with acute onset severe flank pain but is associated with risk factors like atrial fibrillation. Renal infarction (choice D) presents with sudden-onset severe flank pain but is less likely than ureteral calculus in a patient with a history of nephrolithiasis.
Question 4 of 9
Ms. Nena is specifically assigned to talk individually with community leaders like the primary grade teacher and the barangay official in charge of the health committee. Which data collection method will the nurse use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Key informant interview. Ms. Nena will use this method to gather in-depth information from knowledgeable individuals within the community. This approach allows her to gain insights and perspectives from key stakeholders, such as the primary grade teacher and barangay official, who have first-hand knowledge and experience. Key informant interviews are particularly useful for obtaining specific details, opinions, and insights that may not be easily accessible through other methods. In contrast, participant observer involves direct participation in community activities, community mapping focuses on spatial data collection, and social survey typically involves collecting data from a larger sample size rather than individual key informants.
Question 5 of 9
In providing tracheostomy care which of the following is the nurse's PRIORITY nursing action? The nurse ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secures clean ties before removing soiled ones. This is the priority action because securing clean ties prevents accidental dislodgement of the tracheostomy tube, ensuring the patient's airway remains patent. Cutting the dressing (A) or cleaning the incisions (B) can be important but not as critical as securing the tube. Using clean technique (D) is essential but not the priority in this situation.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with intensely pruritic, linear burrows on the web spaces of the hands and wrists. The patient reports a history of close contact with an individual diagnosed with a similar condition. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Scabies. This presentation is classic for scabies infestation caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. The intensely pruritic linear burrows are pathognomonic. Close contact with an individual with scabies increases the likelihood of transmission. The other choices, B: Pediculosis, C: Tinea corporis, and D: Contact dermatitis, do not typically present with linear burrows on the hands and wrists. Pediculosis presents with lice infestation, Tinea corporis with circular lesions, and contact dermatitis with erythema and edema.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Florence was asked by her Headnurse why she requested permission to enroll in the Graduate Program for the second semester. Her reply should be, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Nurse Florence was asked why she requested permission to enroll in the Graduate Program for the second semester, not about her interest in Pediatric Nursing. A: Having an impressive resume to be competitive aligns with career advancement. B: Connecting with people professionally can lead to networking opportunities. C: Investing for the future implies long-term career growth. Therefore, D is the least relevant response to the question asked.