ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, and halitosis. Nasal endoscopy reveals a foul-smelling, yellowish discharge draining from the middle meatus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, halitosis, and foul-smelling, yellowish discharge from the middle meatus is highly suggestive of chronic rhinosinusitis. The presence of nasal polyps further supports this diagnosis. Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, leading to symptoms such as nasal congestion, postnasal drip, cough, and a reduced sense of smell. The yellowish discharge and foul odor are typical findings in cases of chronic rhinosinusitis with secondary bacterial infection. Nasal endoscopy may reveal edematous nasal mucosa and polyps obstructing the middle meatus, contributing to the symptoms described by the patient. Management typically involves a combination of medical therapies such as intranasal corticosteroids, saline irrigation, and antibiotics, and in some cases, surgical intervention
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following IS TRUE about osteoporosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osteoporosis is known as a "silent disease" because it develops slowly over time without any symptoms. Many people with osteoporosis are unaware of their condition until they experience a fracture. The loss of bone density and strength in osteoporosis occurs without any obvious warning signs, making it important for individuals at risk to undergo bone density testing to identify the condition early and prevent further bone loss.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following structures is responsible for storing and concentrating bile produced by the liver until it is needed for digestion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The gallbladder is the structure responsible for storing and concentrating bile produced by the liver until it is needed for digestion. Bile is a digestive fluid that helps in the breakdown of fats during the digestive process. When food containing fats enters the small intestine, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder acts as a reservoir for bile, storing it until it is needed for digestion.
Question 4 of 9
Signs such as using tissues to doorknobs develop because the patient is ________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Signs such as using tissues to doorknobs suggest that the patient is unconsciously controlling unacceptable impulses or feelings. This behavior falls under the category of defense mechanisms, specifically displacement, where the individual redirects their emotions from a threatening target to a safer one. In this case, the patient may be experiencing anxiety or fear related to contamination or germs, leading them to use tissues to avoid touching doorknobs directly. It is a way for the patient to manage their underlying emotions, albeit unconsciously, through this compulsive behavior.
Question 5 of 9
Elmo asks the nurse to explain his condition (BPH) Which statements are CORRECT explanations by the nurse? I It blocks the urethra. II It obstructs the bladder. III. It spreads to other parts of the body. IV. It leads to urinary retention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: I. It blocks the urethra: Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) is a condition in which the prostate gland enlarges and can squeeze the urethra, leading to urinary symptoms such as difficulty urinating. This statement correctly explains one of the effects of BPH on the urinary system.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with multiple, flesh-colored, papular lesions with a central dell on the face and trunk. The lesions have a tendency to bleed upon minor trauma and have been increasing in number over time. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The description of multiple flesh-colored papular lesions with a central dell that tend to bleed upon minor trauma and have been increasing in number over time is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer and typically presents as pearly or flesh-colored papules with telangiectasias (tiny blood vessels) and a characteristic central dell or ulceration. This type of skin cancer often occurs on sun-exposed areas like the face and trunk and can manifest as slow-growing lesions that may bleed easily with minor trauma. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly or crusted lesion, seborrheic keratosis is a benign skin growth with a waxy, stuck-on appearance, and actinic keratosis is a precancerous lesion characterized by rough, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with osteoarthritis of the knee experiences persistent pain and functional limitation despite conservative management. Which surgical procedure is commonly performed to alleviate symptoms and improve function in such cases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Total knee arthroplasty (TKA), also known as total knee replacement, is a surgical procedure commonly performed to alleviate symptoms and improve function in patients with advanced osteoarthritis of the knee that has not responded to conservative management. During TKA, the damaged cartilage and bone in the knee joint are removed and replaced with prosthetic components. This procedure aims to reduce pain, restore function, and improve the quality of life for individuals with severe osteoarthritis of the knee. High tibial osteotomy (HTO) is typically performed in younger patients with unicompartmental osteoarthritis, while knee arthroscopy and meniscectomy are more targeted towards specific knee conditions and may not provide significant relief in cases of advanced osteoarthritis.
Question 8 of 9
A patient was for transfer to a tertiary hospital because of severe asthma, but the nurse do not prepare the patient right away and the patient dies. Which of the following the nurse is liable?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's failure to promptly prepare the patient for transfer to a tertiary hospital resulted in the patient's death. This situation falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or failure to provide a standard level of care that results in harm to a patient. The nurse had a duty to ensure the patient's timely transfer and by delaying the necessary actions, the nurse failed to uphold this duty, leading to a tragic outcome. Murder, assault, and battery are criminal offenses that do not fit the circumstances described in the scenario.
Question 9 of 9
In a conscious trauma patient with a suspected head injury, which of the following actions is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a conscious trauma patient with a suspected head injury, maintaining cervical spine immobilization is crucial. The presence of a head injury raises concerns for potential concomitant cervical spine injury. Therefore, it is vital to prevent any movement of the cervical spine to avoid exacerbating a potential spinal cord injury. Maintaining immobilization involves stabilizing the patient's head and neck in a neutral position until appropriate imaging studies can assess the extent of any spinal injury. This action helps prevent further harm and ensures the safety of the patient during assessment and management of their injuries.