ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, and halitosis. Nasal endoscopy reveals a foul-smelling, yellowish discharge draining from the middle meatus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, halitosis, and foul-smelling, yellowish discharge from the middle meatus is highly suggestive of chronic rhinosinusitis. The presence of nasal polyps further supports this diagnosis. Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, leading to symptoms such as nasal congestion, postnasal drip, cough, and a reduced sense of smell. The yellowish discharge and foul odor are typical findings in cases of chronic rhinosinusitis with secondary bacterial infection. Nasal endoscopy may reveal edematous nasal mucosa and polyps obstructing the middle meatus, contributing to the symptoms described by the patient. Management typically involves a combination of medical therapies such as intranasal corticosteroids, saline irrigation, and antibiotics, and in some cases, surgical intervention
Question 2 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute liver failure with hepatic encephalopathy. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's encephalopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The healthcare team should prioritize administering lactulose or other ammonia-lowering agents to manage hepatic encephalopathy in a patient with acute liver failure. Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome that occurs in patients with liver dysfunction, leading to the accumulation of ammonia and other neurotoxic metabolites in the bloodstream. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which promotes the conversion of ammonia to ammonium, a less toxic form that can be excreted in the stool. By reducing the levels of ammonia, lactulose helps improve the neurological symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following can be a MAJOR PROBLEM for a patient with tracheostomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Having a tracheostomy means that a patient has an artificial opening in their neck to help them breathe. Therefore, any issues related to breathing, such as blockages in the tracheostomy tube or difficulty in clearing secretions, can pose a major problem for a patient with a tracheostomy. It is crucial to monitor the patient's respiratory status closely and intervene promptly if any breathing difficulties arise to prevent potential respiratory distress or complications.
Question 4 of 9
The false statement about physiologic jaundice in the statements below is _____
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Physiologic jaundice in newborns is a common and typically benign condition caused by the immaturity of the newborn's liver. The correct statement about physiologic jaundice is that it occurs due to an imbalance between the production and elimination of bilirubin. In contrast, Option A is the false statement because it incorrectly states that physiologic jaundice is caused by impairment in the removal of bilirubin deficiency in the production of glucuronide transferase. This statement is inaccurate as physiologic jaundice results from the immature liver's reduced ability to conjugate bilirubin.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of GERD should be closely monitored for the development of osteoporosis. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporotic fractures, particularly in long-term users. This risk is thought to be due to decreased calcium absorption as stomach acidity is reduced by PPIs, leading to potential alterations in bone metabolism and density. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to assess bone health, educate patients on calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and consider other risk factors for osteoporosis in individuals taking PPIs long-term. While hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and Clostridium difficile infection may be seen as adverse effects with other medications or conditions, osteoporosis is the adverse effect most closely monitored in patients taking PPIs for GERD.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with suspected acute exacerbation of asthma presents with severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for assessing the severity of the patient's asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of acute exacerbation of asthma, including severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. In such cases, the most appropriate intervention for assessing the severity of the asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions is a clinical assessment using standardized severity scores.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following statements is TRUE of Quality Improvement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quality Improvement is a systematic approach that aims to continually enhance the quality of services or products within an organization. The statement that is true of Quality Improvement is that it focuses on continually improving every process in the organization (Option B). This includes processes related to patient care, organizational structure, and all aspects of operations. Quality Improvement involves identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, monitoring the effectiveness of those changes, and then making further refinements. By focusing on every process within the organization, Quality Improvement helps drive positive outcomes and ensures sustainable improvements in quality and performance.
Question 8 of 9
A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents with painless vaginal bleeding at 10 weeks of gestation. On ultrasound, a gestational sac with no embryo is visualized within the uterus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a missed abortion, the embryo has died, but the products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to the visualization of a gestational sac without an embryo on ultrasound. This is a type of missed miscarriage where the woman may not have any symptoms initially and the diagnosis is made during a routine ultrasound. The most common presenting symptom is painless vaginal bleeding. The absence of an embryo within the gestational sac can be confirmed through serial ultrasound examinations showing no fetal growth or cardiac activity. It is important for healthcare providers to provide appropriate counseling and management options to support the patient through this emotional experience.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with acute pain and swelling of the wrist joint. Physical examination reveals ulnar deviation of the fingers and swan-neck deformity of the digits. Which imaging modality is most appropriate for further evaluation of wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: X-ray is the most appropriate imaging modality for evaluating wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis. It can show joint space narrowing, erosions, soft tissue swelling, and periarticular osteopenia. X-rays are readily available, cost-effective, and provide valuable information about joint damage and disease progression in rheumatoid arthritis. In this case, X-ray would be able to confirm the presence of erosions, joint deformities, and assess the severity of the disease in the wrist joint. While MRI and ultrasound can also be helpful in evaluating rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray remains the initial imaging modality of choice due to its convenience and ability to assess bony changes. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not indicated for evaluating wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis.