Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, gum bleeding, and easy bruising. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of recurrent episodes of epistaxis, gum bleeding, and easy bruising, along with laboratory findings of prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal coagulation studies (PT and aPTT) are highly suggestive of Von Willebrand disease. Von Willebrand disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder and is characterized by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a key role in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The prolonged bleeding time is due to impaired platelet adhesion to the damaged vessel wall in the absence of functional vWF. Normal platelet count and normal PT/aPTT help differentiate Von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia and platelet function disorders like Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation. Which instruction is important for the nurse to include in patient education about prednisone therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for patients with COPD who are prescribed prednisone to be educated about the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Prednisone is a type of corticosteroid that should be tapered off gradually under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent potential withdrawal symptoms and adrenal insufficiency. Suddenly stopping prednisone can lead to serious adverse effects, including fatigue, weakness, joint pain, fever, dizziness, and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, adherence to the prescribed tapering schedule is essential to ensure the safe and effective management of COPD exacerbations with prednisone therapy.

Question 3 of 5

Ms., Sanchez is a new nursing graduate and in dire need for the hospitalization of her ailing mother She is being offered to endorse a detergent product on TV Commercial wearing a mini skirt and a plunging neckline shirt. In doing this performance Ms. Sanchez is violating the ________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ms. Sanchez is violating the code of ethics for nurses. Nurses are expected to uphold professional behavior and maintain a positive public image. Endorsing a detergent product on TV Commercial wearing a mini skirt and a plunging neckline shirt may be seen as unprofessional and contrary to the image of a nursing professional. The code of ethics for nurses requires nurses to act with integrity, maintain professional boundaries, and avoid actions that could bring discredit to the profession. By engaging in this commercial, Ms. Sanchez is not upholding the ethical standards expected of nurses.

Question 4 of 5

While preparing the surgical site, the nurse notices that the skin preparation solution has expired. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Using an expired skin preparation solution can compromise the safety and effectiveness of the surgical site cleansing. Expired solutions may have reduced efficacy or could cause adverse reactions due to chemical breakdown over time. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to discard the expired solution and obtain a new one to ensure proper sanitation and reduce the risk of complications during the surgical procedure. It is important to adhere to proper protocols and guidelines in healthcare settings to maintain patient safety and optimal outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with acute pain, swelling, and deformity of the ankle following a twisting injury. X-ray reveals a fracture involving the distal fibula with associated widening of the ankle mortise. Which type of ankle fracture is most likely?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A trimalleolar fracture is characterized by fractures involving the lateral malleolus (distal fibula), medial malleolus (distal tibia), and the posterior tubercle of the distal tibia. This fracture pattern results in instability of the ankle joint and is often associated with widening of the ankle mortise on X-ray. The deformity and swelling seen in this patient are indicative of a trimalleolar fracture and are typically caused by a high-energy injury, such as a forceful twisting motion. Treatment for trimalleolar fractures often involves surgical intervention to stabilize the ankle joint and restore normal function.

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