A patient presents with pruritic, erythematous patches with silvery scales on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by pruritic, erythematous patches with silvery scales, commonly found on the elbows, knees, and scalp. This presentation matches the patient's symptoms. Eczema (choice A) typically presents with red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches. Pityriasis rosea (choice C) manifests as a herald patch followed by smaller scaly patches in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Seborrheic dermatitis (choice D) involves oily, yellowish, scaly patches mainly on the scalp, face, and ears, and does not typically present with silvery scales.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial step before starting TPN is to evaluate the patient's tolerance to glucose. This is crucial to ensure the patient can metabolize the glucose effectively and avoid complications such as hyperglycemia. Assessing affordability (A) is important but not the immediate concern. Identifying allergies (C) should be done but is not the first step. Assessing the patient's understanding (D) is important but not as critical as evaluating glucose tolerance before starting TPN.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the licensure examination aims to assess if candidates meet the expected competency standards to practice nursing safely and effectively. This process ensures that only qualified individuals enter the profession, maintaining high standards of care. Choice A is incorrect because the exam goes beyond applying theory to include practical skills. Choice B is incorrect as protecting the public is the outcome of ensuring competency. Choice C is incorrect as the exam evaluates the full scope of nursing practice, not just its application.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: How the nurse will behave. Standards of nursing care refer to the expected behaviors and practices that nurses should adhere to in providing quality care to patients. This encompasses ethical principles, professional conduct, and best practices in nursing. It is essential for nurses to follow these standards to ensure patient safety and quality outcomes. Explanation: - A: What protects the nurse. This choice is incorrect because standards of nursing care primarily focus on patient care and outcomes, rather than protecting the nurse. - C: How much work is done. This choice is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the behaviors and practices expected of nurses in providing quality care. - D: Ask the local officials. This choice is unrelated to the concept of standards of nursing care and is not relevant to the question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Precipitous labor is characterized by rapid cervical dilation and descent of the fetal presenting part, leading to a shortened labor duration of less than 3 hours. This rapid progression can increase the risk of maternal complications, such as postpartum hemorrhage. Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as excessive bleeding of more than 500 ml after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml after cesarean delivery. The rapid delivery in precipitous labor can result in inadequate uterine contractions after delivery, leading to poor uterine tone and potential postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate postpartum hemorrhage as a potential maternal complication in a woman experiencing precipitous labor.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hashimoto's thyroiditis. This autoimmune disorder results in chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland, leading to thyroid nodules and hypothyroidism. The colloid-filled spaces seen in the biopsy are characteristic of Hashimoto's. Choice B: Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Choice C: Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the thyroid. Choice D: Thyroid nodules is a general term and does not explain the presence of colloid-filled spaces.