ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals spindle-shaped cells and psammoma bodies. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presence of spindle-shaped cells and psammoma bodies on fine-needle aspiration biopsy is characteristic of follicular thyroid carcinoma. This type of thyroid cancer can present as a thyroid nodule associated with signs of hyperthyroidism due to the release of thyroid hormones from the cancerous thyroid cells. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune condition that typically presents with hypothyroidism, while Graves' disease is another autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism but is not associated with the presence of spindle-shaped cells and psammoma bodies in this context. Papillary thyroid carcinoma may also present with thyroid nodules, but it is more commonly associated with papillary structures and nuclear features rather than spindle-shaped cells seen in follicular thyroid carcinoma.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea. An echocardiogram reveals decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's presentation of swelling of the ankles, dyspnea on exertion, and orthopnea is highly suggestive of heart failure. The echocardiogram findings of decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and dilated left ventricle are characteristic of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), also known as systolic heart failure. In this condition, the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is compromised, leading to symptoms of congestion and decreased cardiac output. The decreased ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not able to efficiently pump out blood with each contraction. Dilatation of the left ventricle is a compensatory mechanism in response to increased volume overload.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and is relieved by nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show transient ST-segment elevation. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prinzmetal's angina, also known as variant angina, is characterized by episodes of chest pain that occur at rest and are relieved by nitroglycerin. Patients with Prinzmetal's angina may also have transient ST-segment elevation on an electrocardiogram (ECG) during episodes of chest pain. This is due to coronary artery vasospasm, which causes temporary obstruction of blood flow to the heart muscle. Stable angina typically presents with chest pain on exertion that resolves with rest, while unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction present with chest pain that is not relieved with nitroglycerin and are associated with more severe coronary artery disease.
Question 5 of 5
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning. What action should the palliative nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage COPD expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning, the palliative nurse should initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences. Advance care planning involves discussing and documenting a patient's preferences regarding future medical care, particularly in situations where the patient may no longer be able to make decisions. This discussion helps ensure that the patient's wishes are respected and followed in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. By engaging in advance care planning discussions, the nurse can help the patient feel empowered, supported, and in control of their medical care decisions. It also allows healthcare providers to align care with the patient's values and goals, ultimately improving quality of life and ensuring dignity at the end of life.