ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is conducting a discharge planning assessment for a patient preparing to transition home. What action by the nurse demonstrates continuity of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because communicating with the patient's primary care provider and community resources demonstrates continuity of care. This action ensures a seamless transition from the hospital to home by keeping all involved parties informed and involved in the patient's care. Option A (written discharge instructions only) may provide information but lacks coordination with other healthcare providers. Option B (discharging without follow-up care coordination) can lead to gaps in care. Option D (disregarding patient concerns) goes against patient-centered care and can disrupt the continuity of care.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about medication adherence. What approach by the nurse promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to ask questions and express concerns promotes patient empowerment and active participation in self-care. This approach fosters communication, understanding, and collaboration between the nurse and patient, leading to better medication adherence. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks patient involvement. Choice B is helpful but does not necessarily empower the patient. Choice D is directive and does not encourage active participation or empowerment.
Question 4 of 9
A patient undergoing mechanical ventilation in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). This intervention is prioritized as it helps improve oxygenation and ventilation in COPD exacerbation without the need for invasive mechanical ventilation, reducing the risk of ventilator-associated complications. NIPPV also decreases the work of breathing and can prevent the need for intubation. Administering bronchodilator medications (B) is important in COPD exacerbation but may not address the immediate need for ventilatory support. Endotracheal intubation (C) should be reserved for cases of respiratory failure not responding to NIPPV. Chest physiotherapy (D) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention for managing acute COPD exacerbation.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.
Question 6 of 9
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling following a vaginal delivery. On assessment, the nurse notes ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The client presenting with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling, along with ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum, could be indicative of complications such as a perineal hematoma. A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the perineal tissues and can be a serious postpartum complication requiring prompt medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to alert the healthcare provider so that appropriate assessment, management, and treatment can be initiated promptly. Applying ice packs or encouraging the client to sit on a donut cushion may not be sufficient in this situation, and administering additional analgesic medication should be done only after the healthcare provider has assessed and determined the cause of the symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following data sets can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pulse rates. Pulse rates can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement because they have a true zero point and allow for meaningful ratios to be calculated. This means that we can perform operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on pulse rate data. In contrast, the other options (A: eye color, C: ethnicity, D: gender) are categorical data that do not have a true zero point and therefore cannot be analyzed on the ratio level. Eye color, ethnicity, and gender are all examples of nominal data which only allow for qualitative classification and do not have a numerical value that can be used in mathematical operations.
Question 8 of 9
Select the medication that should be discussed by the nurse with the attending physician before administering it to patient with acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atropine. Atropine is a mydriatic agent that can exacerbate acute angle closure glaucoma by dilating the pupil and potentially worsening the condition. The nurse should discuss with the attending physician before administering it to avoid worsening the patient's condition. A: Isopto carpine eye drops are actually used in the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma as they help in lowering intraocular pressure, so there is no need to discuss this with the physician. B: Mannitol is used as an osmotic diuretic to reduce intraocular pressure in acute angle closure glaucoma, and it does not directly affect the pupil, so it does not require discussion with the physician before administration. C: Corticosporin ophthalmic is a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid used to treat eye infections and inflammation, but it does not have a direct effect on worsening acute angle closure glaucoma, so it does
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed aspirin and clopidogrel for dual antiplatelet therapy. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing bleeding complications in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) concomitantly. Aspirin and clopidogrel can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. PPIs help reduce this risk by decreasing gastric acid production. Therefore, administering PPIs with dual antiplatelet therapy is essential for preventing bleeding complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake (B) may not directly address the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of thrombocytopenia (C) is important but may not directly prevent bleeding in this case. Providing education on fall prevention measures (D) is important for overall safety but does not directly address bleeding risks associated with dual antiplatelet therapy.