A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a postpartum client complaining of persistent, heavy vaginal bleeding, the most appropriate nursing action is to assess vital signs and uterine tone. This is important to determine if the bleeding is within normal limits or if there is a potential postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) occurring. Monitoring vital signs can help identify signs of shock, while assessing uterine tone can help determine if the uterus is contracting effectively to control bleeding. Prompt assessment and early detection of PPH are crucial for effective management and prevention of complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake, applying a cold compress, and administering pain medication may be appropriate interventions in some situations, but assessing vital signs and uterine tone take priority in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpes simplex virus infection. The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm is characteristic of herpes simplex virus infection, specifically herpes zoster (shingles). The linear pattern is due to the virus following a specific nerve pathway. This is different from the other choices - A: Allergic contact dermatitis typically presents as a diffuse rash at the site of contact with an allergen, not a linear pattern. C: Scabies presents with burrows and papules, not vesicles in a linear pattern. D: Poison ivy dermatitis causes a diffuse rash, not a linear vesicular rash.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: The Universal Health Care law aims to provide all Filipinos access to quality and affordable healthcare services, including medicines. Step 2: This law covers a broader scope compared to the other choices. Step 3: The Local Government Code focuses on local governance, not specifically on healthcare. Step 4: Primary Health Care is a concept rather than a specific law targeting affordable medicines. Step 5: The Generic Drug Act promotes the use of generic drugs but does not guarantee affordability for all Filipinos.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurse Merry should tell the recruiter to give her more time to settle her personal affairs before departing to Canada. This is the best action because it shows responsibility and consideration for her current commitments and family situation. By requesting more time, she can prioritize her mother's recovery and complete her graduate studies, demonstrating good decision-making skills and care for her loved ones. Option A is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of family and personal obligations. Option B is incorrect as it shows a lack of planning and responsibility. Option D is incorrect as it suggests running away from problems instead of addressing them responsibly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins. C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use. D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing emotional support and offering counseling or therapy sessions address the root cause of the patient's depression in a holistic manner. This intervention allows the patient to express their emotions, process their feelings, and receive guidance on coping strategies. Encouraging social activities (A) may not directly address the underlying emotional issues. Referring to a psychiatrist for medication (B) should be considered if counseling alone is insufficient. Exploring spiritual beliefs (D) is important but may not be the most immediate priority for addressing depression in this context.