Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following complaints best describes lower extremity calf pain associated with peripheral artery disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dull pain or cramp. In peripheral artery disease, calf pain is typically described as a dull ache or cramp due to inadequate blood flow to the muscles during exercise. This pain is known as claudication. Choice A is incorrect as sharp, stabbing pain is not typically associated with peripheral artery disease. Choice C, an electric shock, is more indicative of nerve-related conditions. Choice D, a pulsating pain, is more characteristic of an aneurysm rather than peripheral artery disease.

Question 3 of 5

Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Migraines with aura. Estrogen in contraceptives can increase the risk of stroke in patients with migraines with aura due to its effect on blood clotting. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in these patients to reduce the risk of adverse cardiovascular events. Choices A, C, and D do not have a direct contraindication to estrogen-progestin contraceptives based on current guidelines.

Question 4 of 5

Ms. Wright comes to your office, complaining of palpitations. While checking her pulse you notice an irregular rhythm. When you listen to her heart, every fourth beat sounds different. It sounds like a triplet rather than the usual "lub dup." How would you document your examination?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Regularly irregular rhythm. This is the appropriate documentation for Ms. Wright's presentation as her pulse demonstrates a pattern of irregularity with every fourth beat sounding different. This indicates a regularly irregular rhythm, where there is a discernible pattern to the irregularity. Rationale: 1. Regular rate and rhythm (Choice A) is incorrect as Ms. Wright's palpitations and the irregularity in her pulse indicate an irregular rhythm. 2. Irregularly irregular rhythm (Choice B) is incorrect as this term is used to describe arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation, which do not have a discernible pattern of irregularity. 3. Bradycardia (Choice D) is incorrect as it refers to a slow heart rate, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the focus is on the irregular rhythm. In summary, the correct choice (C) accurately describes the specific irregular pattern observed in Ms. Wright's pulse, distinguishing it from

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage

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