A patient presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal low serum cortisol levels and elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal low serum cortisol levels and elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described - muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, hyperpigmentation of the skin, low serum cortisol levels, and elevated ACTH levels - are classic findings in Addison's disease. Addison's disease is a primary adrenal insufficiency characterized by the insufficient production of cortisol and, to some extent, aldosterone. The low cortisol levels result in symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and skin hyperpigmentation due to increased levels of ACTH stimulating melanin production. In contrast, in conditions like hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus, the symptoms and laboratory findings would not fully align with those described in the patient in this scenario.

Question 2 of 9

Nurse Selma conducts her INITIAL assessment on Catherine. patient keeps on crying and constantly pulls her right ear. What is her MOST APPROPRIATE action?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is crying and continuously pulling at a specific body part, such as Catherine pulling her right ear, it indicates discomfort or pain in that area. Nurse Selma's most appropriate action would be to further assess the description and frequency of the pain. This will help her identify the possible cause of the pain, whether it is due to an ear infection, injury, or any other underlying issue. Understanding the nature and intensity of the pain will guide Nurse Selma in providing appropriate care and intervention for Catherine. It is crucial to address the patient's pain promptly to ensure their comfort and well-being. Referring to the attending physician may be necessary after this initial assessment but assessing the pain should be the immediate priority.

Question 3 of 9

As a newly 1icensed nurse employed in a tertiary hospital, you are required to attend Continuing Professional Development (CPD) program. When the training program is for the enrichment of nurses in the hospital, it is called __________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In-service training programs are specifically designed to provide continuing education and professional development for employees within a particular organization, in this case, a hospital. These programs are tailored to meet the needs of the staff and enhance their skills and knowledge within their work environment. Since the CPD program in the tertiary hospital is aimed at enriching and supporting the growth of the nurses' knowledge and expertise within the hospital setting, it falls under the category of an in-service training program.

Question 4 of 9

Nurse Rey with the members of the team. from a tertiary hospital is going for their annual outreach program Operation TULI". There were 3000 patients who came in the morning with only 4 doctors, 3 nurses and 1 pharmacist. Due to the volume of patients, Nurse Rey, was asked to participate in per forming circumcision with the rest of the doctors. Nurse Rey can be 1iable of committing

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Nurse Rey can be liable of committing malpractice by performing circumcisions without the proper training, qualifications, and legal authority to do so. Malpractice refers to negligence or failure to provide a standard level of care that results in harm to a patient. In this case, Nurse Rey participating in performing circumcisions may not have the necessary skills and expertise compared to the doctors who are trained to perform such procedures. This can lead to potential harm or complications for the patients, making it a case of malpractice.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Symptoms began approximately 1 hour ago and have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech that partially resolved within one hour, is consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). TIAs are caused by temporary disruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, leading to transient neurological symptoms. Unlike an ischemic stroke, which results in permanent damage to brain tissue due to prolonged interruption of blood flow, TIAs are transient and resolve within 24 hours. Hemorrhagic strokes and subarachnoid hemorrhages typically present with sudden, severe headaches, and may not improve or resolve quickly as seen in this case.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.

Question 7 of 9

The patient's diagnostic tests revealed he was positive for bacterial pneumonia. The MOST likely causative organism of this type of pneumonia is ______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common causative organism of bacterial pneumonia in adults. It is responsible for the majority of community-acquired pneumonia cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-positive bacteria and is known to cause typical pneumonia characterized by sudden onset of high fever, productive cough with blood-tinged or rust-colored sputum, chest pain, and consolidation on chest imaging. Other organisms like Legionella pneumophila (choice A), Mycoplasma pneumoniae (choice C), and Haemophilus influenzae (choice D) can also cause pneumonia, but Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely culprit based on the patient's test results.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following salivary glands is located superior and anterior to the ear and produces mainly serous saliva?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The parotid gland is the salivary gland that is located superior and anterior to the ear. It mainly produces serous saliva, which is a thin, watery fluid rich in enzymes. The other salivary glands mentioned are the sublingual gland, submandibular gland, and submaxillary gland, all of which have different locations and produce different types of saliva.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from sub-Saharan Africa are consistent with malaria. Intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites observed on blood smear examination are characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly Plasmodium falciparum, which is the most common and deadliest species causing malaria in sub-Saharan Africa. Plasmodium falciparum can lead to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, if not promptly treated. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not malaria. Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for Lyme disease, which typically presents with a different set of symptoms like erythema migrans rash. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, not malaria.

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