ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon further examination, it is revealed that the patient has decreased acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. In myasthenia gravis, there is a decrease in acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This occurs due to autoimmune destruction of these receptors. ALS (B) affects motor neurons, not acetylcholine receptors. Guillain-Barre syndrome (C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting peripheral nerves, not neuromuscular junctions. Muscular dystrophy (D) is a genetic disorder causing muscle degeneration, not affecting acetylcholine receptors.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, peripheral edema, and hypertension. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, metabolic acidosis, and hyperkalemia. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate initial management for the patient described is hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is essential for managing chronic kidney disease with severe symptoms and electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis. Hemodialysis helps to remove urea and creatinine from the blood, correct electrolyte abnormalities, and improve symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, and peripheral edema. Initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy (Choice A) is contraindicated in severe kidney disease due to the risk of worsening renal function. Intravenous administration of calcium gluconate (Choice C) is used for acute hyperkalemia with cardiac toxicity, not for initial management. Sodium bicarbonate administration (Choice D) may help correct metabolic acidosis, but it does not address the underlying cause or the need for urgent renal replacement therapy.
Question 4 of 9
During admission, the nurse needs to take the patient`s obstetric Al data. Which of the following the Most important?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Previous pregnancy experience is crucial for understanding the patient's obstetric history and potential risks. Step 2: It helps in identifying any complications or issues that may arise during the current pregnancy. Step 3: Laboratory results, prenatal check-up records, and diagnostic test results provide additional information but do not offer insights into the patient's past pregnancy experiences. Summary: Choice C is the most important as it directly relates to the patient's obstetric history, while the other options focus on current data that may not provide the same level of context.
Question 5 of 9
The PRIORITY nursing objective when caring a patient with a tracheostomy is _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To provide a patent airway. When caring for a patient with a tracheostomy, ensuring a clear and unobstructed airway is the top priority to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation. This involves suctioning, maintaining proper tube placement, and monitoring for any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate need for airway management, which is crucial for the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 6 of 9
In the presentation of results of qualitative research, the nurse researcher uses as a reference in the write-up the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: second. In qualitative research, the nurse researcher typically uses the second person as a reference in the write-up to maintain objectivity and convey findings accurately. Using "first" may introduce bias, "fourth" is irrelevant, and "third" is too far removed from the perspective of the researcher. By referencing the second person, the researcher can present the results in a clear and unbiased manner, enhancing the credibility of the study.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with a palpable thyroid nodule and signs of hypothyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals cystic degeneration and colloid-filled spaces. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hashimoto's thyroiditis. This autoimmune disorder results in chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland, leading to thyroid nodules and hypothyroidism. The colloid-filled spaces seen in the biopsy are characteristic of Hashimoto's. Choice B: Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Choice C: Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the thyroid. Choice D: Thyroid nodules is a general term and does not explain the presence of colloid-filled spaces.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a noncontrast-enhancing hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subarachnoid hemorrhage. This condition presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status due to bleeding in the subarachnoid space. This type of hemorrhage is typically noncontrast-enhancing on imaging. A: Ischemic stroke does not typically present with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. B: Subdural hematoma usually presents with a slower onset of symptoms and often develops after head trauma. C: Intracerebral hemorrhage presents with focal neurological deficits rather than altered mental status and vomiting. In summary, based on the sudden onset of symptoms, imaging findings, and clinical presentation, subarachnoid hemorrhage is the most likely diagnosis in this case.