ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon further examination, it is revealed that the patient has decreased acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. In myasthenia gravis, there is a decrease in acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This occurs due to autoimmune destruction of these receptors. ALS (B) affects motor neurons, not acetylcholine receptors. Guillain-Barre syndrome (C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting peripheral nerves, not neuromuscular junctions. Muscular dystrophy (D) is a genetic disorder causing muscle degeneration, not affecting acetylcholine receptors.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,
Question 3 of 9
Bel1le has a difficulty tolerating frustration The GOAL Of the nurse is to assist Belle to ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cope with anxiety. The nurse's goal is to address Belle's difficulty tolerating frustration, which likely leads to anxiety. By helping Belle develop coping strategies for managing her anxiety, the nurse can assist her in handling frustration more effectively. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing self-esteem, recognizing needs, and mobilizing resources may be important aspects of Belle's overall care but are not directly related to addressing her difficulty with frustration and anxiety. Focusing on coping with anxiety directly targets the root issue and is the most appropriate goal in this context.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Central retinal artery occlusion. This condition presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, cherry-red spot at the macula due to lack of blood flow, and attenuated retinal vessels. The cherry-red spot is due to the transparency of the fovea when there is ischemia in the surrounding retina. Central retinal vein occlusion (B) presents with sudden vision loss accompanied by retinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins. Retinal detachment (C) typically presents with sudden flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like visual field defect. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (D) presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil.
Question 5 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with severe abdominal pain and passage of tissue at 12 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is partially dilated, and products of conception are protruding through the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the pregnant woman is presenting with severe abdominal pain, passage of tissue, and cervical dilation with products of conception protruding through the cervical os at 12 weeks gestation. These are classic signs and symptoms of an incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion occurs when not all of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. It can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, cervical dilation, and passage of tissue. The management of incomplete abortion may involve expectant, medical, or surgical options depending on the clinical context and the patient's condition.
Question 6 of 9
Annie states,'I 'm afraid to 1et my children out of my sight now that I can't hear them." What is the nurse ' s BEST response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A is the correct answer as it demonstrates therapeutic communication by encouraging Annie to express her feelings and fears. It shows empathy and understanding, allowing Annie to elaborate on her concerns. B is incorrect as it dismisses Annie's fears and implies blame on her parenting. C is incorrect as it focuses on the behavior of the children rather than addressing Annie's emotions. D is incorrect as it places the responsibility on the children to make Annie feel comfortable, rather than addressing her concerns directly.
Question 7 of 9
A patient expresses distrust in the healthcare system due to previous negative experiences. What is the nurse's best approach to rebuild trust?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because actively listening, acknowledging the patient's concerns, and working towards rebuilding trust through transparency and reliability are essential steps in addressing distrust. By validating the patient's experiences and actively involving them in the process, the nurse can foster a supportive and trusting relationship. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can further damage trust and undermine the patient's feelings. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the distrust can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust. Choice D is incorrect because telling the patient to trust the healthcare system without addressing their concerns is dismissive and unhelpful.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Pedrito is teaching a client with Parkinson's disease on ways to prevent curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal flexion, the nurse should tell the client to _________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Periodically lie in prone position without a neck pillow. This position helps to prevent spinal flexion by promoting extension of the spine and stretching of the hip flexors. Prone positioning also helps maintain alignment of the spine and prevents contractures. Resting in supine position (choice A) with the head elevated does not promote spinal extension. Sleeping only in dorsal recumbent position (choice B) may lead to spinal flexion. Sleeping on either side (choice D) does not specifically address spinal flexion prevention.