A patient presents with multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the genital area. The patient reports a history of similar lesions in the past, occurring during periods of stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, affecting the genital area. The patient reports a history of similar lesions in the past, occurring during periods of stress. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described, involving multiple grouped vesicles on an erythematous base in the genital area, is classic for herpes simplex genitalis. This condition is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and is characterized by recurrent outbreaks of painful vesicles in the genital or perianal area. The history of similar lesions occurring during periods of stress is also suggestive of herpes simplex virus reactivation. Genital warts (condyloma acuminata) typically present as painless, fleshy growths in the genital area caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Syphilis manifests as a painless ulcer known as a chancre, which is not described in the presentation. Molluscum contagiosum presents with pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication, rather than vesicles.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following BEST describe a strong team?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A strong team is cohesive, meaning its members work well together, communicate effectively, and support each other. Cohesion helps the team to function smoothly and achieve its goals efficiently. While being driven, having shared goals, and a sense of mission are important characteristics of a strong team, cohesion is the foundation that holds the team together and allows these other factors to thrive.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals granulomatous inflammation and multinucleated giant cells. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Subacute thyroiditis is an inflammatory disorder of the thyroid gland that causes gland destruction and release of pre-formed thyroid hormone leading to hyperthyroidism. The fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings of granulomatous inflammation and multinucleated giant cells are characteristic of subacute thyroiditis. This condition typically presents with a painful, tender thyroid gland and may be preceded by a viral illness. Unlike Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune disorder resulting in hyperthyroidism with diffuse goiter and positive thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins, subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limited and resolves spontaneously without the need for long-term treatment.

Question 4 of 9

While preparing the operating room (OR) for a surgical procedure, the nurse notices a spill of bodily fluids on the floor. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority action when noticing a spill of bodily fluids on the floor while preparing the operating room for a surgical procedure is to clean up the spill using appropriate infection control measures. This is essential to prevent the spread of infections and ensure a safe surgical environment for both patients and healthcare providers. Cleaning up the spill promptly and properly reduces the risk of contamination and subsequent infections. Once the spill is cleaned up, the nurse can then proceed with documenting the spill, placing warning signs to alert others, and continuing with the preparation of the OR as planned. But the initial priority is to eliminate the immediate threat posed by the spill through proper cleaning and infection control measures.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse recognizes that a patient is exhibiting symptoms associated with a TIA. After what period of time does the nurse determine these symptoms will subside?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a temporary disruption in blood supply to the brain. The symptoms of a TIA typically last for a short period of time, usually less than 1 hour. In some cases, the symptoms may last up to 24 hours but generally resolve within a shorter time frame. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the symptoms of a TIA promptly and assess the patient for appropriate management to prevent the risk of a full-blown stroke.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with excessive thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal hypernatremia, hyperglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's presentation of excessive thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue align with the classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus. The laboratory findings of hypernatremia (high sodium levels), hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels), and metabolic acidosis further support this diagnosis. In diabetes mellitus, the body is unable to properly regulate blood sugar levels due to either insufficient insulin production (Type 1 diabetes) or ineffective use of insulin by the cells (Type 2 diabetes). This leads to high blood sugar levels, causing symptoms such as polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and fatigue. The metabolic acidosis is a result of the body's breakdown of fats and proteins for energy due to the lack of glucose utilization in the cells.

Question 7 of 9

Which is a common verbalization of the patient with GBS regarding the EARLY ONSET of symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) is characterized by ascending motor weakness, starting typically in the lower extremities and progressing upwards. Patients with GBS often verbalize the early onset of symptoms as weakness starting in the legs and potentially spreading to involve the arms and sometimes the face. Therefore, the common verbalization of the patient with GBS regarding the early onset of symptoms is ascending motor weakness. Acute hemiplegia (choice A) and acute hemiparesis (choice D) involve weakness or paralysis typically limited to one side of the body, which is not a characteristic presentation of GBS. Weakness of the four lower extremities (choice C) is also not a typical description in GBS as the weakness usually starts distally and progresses proximally.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with abdominal pain, fever, and peripheral blood smear showing fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes). Laboratory tests reveal elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin, and increased indirect bilirubin. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare blood disorder characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, neurological abnormalities, and renal dysfunction. The peripheral blood smear in TTP typically shows fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes) due to mechanical destruction within small blood vessels. Laboratory findings in TTP commonly include elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), decreased haptoglobin (as it is consumed in the clearance of free hemoglobin), and increased indirect bilirubin due to increased red blood cell breakdown. This combination of clinical presentation and laboratory abnormalities is classic for TTP. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) may present similarly but is more commonly associated with renal dysfunction and is often triggered by infection with Shiga toxin-producing E. coli.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain at rest, unrelated to exertion, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain at rest, which is not relieved by nitroglycerin. The ECG findings in unstable angina typically show ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion. It is considered a medical emergency as it can progress to a myocardial infarction. Stable angina, on the other hand, is chest pain or discomfort that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Acute myocardial infarction would typically present with ST-segment elevation on ECG, while Prinzmetal's angina is characterized by transient ST-segment elevation due to coronary artery vasospasm.

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