ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with multiple, flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with a central umbilication on the face. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by the poxvirus. It commonly presents as flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication on the face, trunk, and extremities. The central umbilication indicates the presence of a crater-like indentation in the center of the lesion. It is a benign condition and usually self-limited, but it can be persistent and contagious. Treatment options include cryotherapy, curettage, topical therapies, and observation. Acne vulgaris presents with comedones, papules, pustules, and nodules primarily on the face, chest, and back. Sebaceous hyperplasia is characterized by yellowish papules with central dell on the face. Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a pearly papule with telangiectasias and may have ulceration or bleeding.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with multiple, flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with a central umbilication on the face. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by the poxvirus. It commonly presents as flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication on the face, trunk, and extremities. The central umbilication indicates the presence of a crater-like indentation in the center of the lesion. It is a benign condition and usually self-limited, but it can be persistent and contagious. Treatment options include cryotherapy, curettage, topical therapies, and observation. Acne vulgaris presents with comedones, papules, pustules, and nodules primarily on the face, chest, and back. Sebaceous hyperplasia is characterized by yellowish papules with central dell on the face. Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a pearly papule with telangiectasias and may have ulceration or bleeding.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and suprapubic pain. Urinalysis reveals pyuria and bacteriuria. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's presentation of urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, and suprapubic pain along with the urinalysis findings of pyuria (pus in the urine) and bacteriuria (bacteria in the urine) are highly suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). UTIs are one of the most common types of bacterial infections seen in clinical practice. The symptoms described are classic for a lower urinary tract infection. The presence of pyuria and bacteriuria on urinalysis further supports the diagnosis of a UTI. Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Chronic kidney disease is often asymptomatic in early stages and presents with symptoms like fatigue, edema, and changes in urination later on. Renal calculi are associated with severe colicky flank pain that can radiate to the groin, and they may present with
Question 4 of 9
Amy, a multiparous patient, 28 hours after Ceasarian delivery (CS), who is breastfeeding, complains of severe abdominal cramps. Nurse Kayla explains that these are caused by which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The severe abdominal cramps experienced by the multiparous patient Amy, 28 hours after a Cesarean delivery (CS) and while breastfeeding, are likely caused by the release of Oxytocin during the breastfeeding session. Oxytocin is a hormone that is naturally produced during breastfeeding to stimulate the contraction of the uterus and help reduce postpartum bleeding. These contractions may result in cramping sensations in the abdomen, specifically at the site of the uterus. It is a normal physiological response and an indication that the body is working as it should to support the postpartum recovery process.
Question 5 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen is rigid, and fetal parts are palpable abdominally. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Uterine rupture is the most likely cause of these symptoms in a pregnant woman presenting with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, rigidity of the abdomen, and palpable fetal parts abdominally. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy, typically occurring during labor in women with a previous cesarean delivery or other uterine scars. The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain can be associated with vaginal bleeding due to the tearing of the uterine wall, causing fetal parts to be palpable abdominally. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention. Ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion may present with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding but would not typically present with palpable fetal parts abdominally in a pregnant woman.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus, along with unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests, is most consistent with vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is characterized by inflammation of the vestibular nerve leading to sudden onset vertigo that can last for hours to days. It is often associated with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests indicates dysfunction of one vestibular system. Differential diagnosis for this type of presentation includes other conditions such as Meniere's disease, BPPV, and acoustic neuroma. However, the combination of symptoms and unilateral vestibular weakness makes vestibular neuritis the most likely diagnosis in this case.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is caused by the markedly distended uterus and intermittent uterine contractions within 2 to 3 days after birth?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine atony is caused by the markedly distended uterus and intermittent uterine contractions within 2 to 3 days after birth. It is characterized by the inability of the uterus to contract after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding postpartum. This condition is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. Treatment may involve massage of the uterus, administration of uterotonics, and in severe cases, surgical interventions such as a hysterectomy. Retained placenta refers to incomplete expulsion of the placenta after delivery. Afterpains are the discomfort felt by some women as their uterus contracts and returns to its normal size after childbirth. A boggy uterus is another term for a uterus that feels soft, lax, or lack firm tone, which can be a sign of uterine atony.
Question 8 of 9
The physician prescribes a treatment plan for patient Mila. Nurse Victor understands that the initial treatment goal is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The initial treatment goal for a patient like Mila is often focused on preventing infection. Infection prevention is a basic and essential step in patient care, especially for someone who may be at risk due to their medical condition or treatment plan. By preventing infection, healthcare providers can help ensure the patient's safety and promote successful outcomes for the overall treatment plan. Correcting hypoxia, metabolic acidosis, and increasing myocardial oxygen supply may be important goals as well, but preventing infection is usually prioritized as it can have serious consequences if not addressed promptly.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.