ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with gross hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass. Imaging reveals a large heterogeneous renal mass with areas of necrosis and calcifications. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of gross hematuria, flank pain, palpable abdominal mass, along with imaging findings of a large heterogeneous renal mass with necrosis and calcifications are highly suggestive of renal cell carcinoma (RCC). RCC is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults. The presence of necrosis and calcifications are characteristic features of RCC. Imaging modalities such as CT scans or MRI can confirm the diagnosis by showing the typical features of RCC, including a solid mass with areas of necrosis and calcifications. It is important to further evaluate this patient, likely with a biopsy, to confirm the diagnosis and determine the extent of the disease for appropriate management.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite that commonly causes waterborne illness characterized by watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea. This parasite is often transmitted through contaminated water sources such as streams or lakes. Laboratory tests identifying oocysts in the stool sample are indicative of Cryptosporidium infection. Giardia lamblia can also cause similar symptoms, but the presence of oocysts points more towards Cryptosporidium in this case. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery with bloody diarrhea and is usually associated with fecal-oral transmission through contaminated food or water. Cyclospora cayetanensis typically causes prolonged watery diarrhea and is associated with the ingestion of contaminated food or water.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash at the site of a tick bite. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Borrelia burgdorferi, which is the bacterium responsible for causing Lyme disease. The classic presentation of Lyme disease includes fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash, known as erythema migrans. This rash typically appears at the site of a tick bite. If left untreated, Lyme disease can progress to involve multiple organ systems and lead to more severe complications. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of malaria, which typically presents with symptoms such as fever, chills, and fatigue, but it does not cause a "bull's eye" rash. Trypanosoma cruzi is the parasite responsible for Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms such as fever, swelling at the site of entry (typically the bite wound), and enlarged lymph nodes, but it does not
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy losses in the second trimester. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and uterine contractions are absent. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that is unable to support the weight of the growing fetus, leading to painless cervical dilation and second-trimester pregnancy loss. In this condition, the cervix may dilate prematurely without contractions, resulting in a painless cervical dilation. The history of recurrent second-trimester losses, along with cervical dilation and absence of uterine contractions in the presenting pregnant woman, are characteristic of incompetent cervix. Prompt recognition and management with cerclage placement can help prevent further pregnancy losses in women with incompetent cervix.
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen is rigid, and fetal parts are palpable abdominally. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Uterine rupture is the most likely cause of these symptoms in a pregnant woman presenting with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, rigidity of the abdomen, and palpable fetal parts abdominally. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy, typically occurring during labor in women with a previous cesarean delivery or other uterine scars. The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain can be associated with vaginal bleeding due to the tearing of the uterine wall, causing fetal parts to be palpable abdominally. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention. Ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion may present with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding but would not typically present with palpable fetal parts abdominally in a pregnant woman.