A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.

Question 2 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain at 22 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and the amniotic sac is visible at the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Incompetent cervix, also known as cervical insufficiency, is the most likely cause of the symptoms described. Incompetent cervix is a condition where the cervix begins to dilate and efface prematurely, typically in the second trimester, without contractions or labor. This can lead to painless cervical dilation and bulging of the amniotic sac into the vagina, which can cause vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain. It is a leading cause of second-trimester pregnancy loss. Treatment may involve a cervical cerclage, a surgical procedure where the cervix is stitched closed to provide additional support.

Question 3 of 9

To help the patient with his breathing difficulty, the nurse places him in which position?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fowler's position is the correct position to help a patient experiencing breathing difficulty. In Fowler's position, the patient is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle with the legs either straight or bent. This position allows for maximum chest expansion, helping to improve ventilation and oxygenation. It is commonly used to assist patients with respiratory distress, including difficulties with breathing. Placing the patient in Fowler's position can alleviate the feeling of breathlessness and facilitate easier breathing by promoting better lung expansion.

Question 4 of 9

Following a severe traumatic brain injury, a patient is experiencing alterations in consciousness characterized by periods of wakefulness but with no meaningful interaction with the environment. Which term best describes this state?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A vegetative state, now more commonly referred to as unresponsive wakefulness syndrome, describes a condition where the patient is awake but with no awareness of themselves or their surroundings. This state usually follows a severe brain injury, such as traumatic brain injury. Patients in a vegetative state may have sleep-wake cycles, open their eyes, and even exhibit reflex movements, but they do not demonstrate any meaningful interaction with the environment. Differentiating between coma and vegetative state is important, as coma implies a complete lack of consciousness, while patients in a vegetative state have preserved wakefulness without awareness. Minimally conscious state (choice C) refers to a condition where there are some minimal signs of awareness or purposeful interaction, making it a different state than the one described in the scenario. Locked-in syndrome (choice D) is a condition where the patient is conscious and aware but unable to move or communicate due to paralysis, which is not consistent

Question 5 of 9

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE

Question 6 of 9

A patient with advanced dementia is no longer able to communicate verbally and displays signs of distress. What should the palliative nurse consider when assessing and managing the patient's distress?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When assessing and managing distress in a patient with advanced dementia who is no longer able to communicate verbally, the palliative nurse should consider exploring non-verbal cues and behaviors to identify the underlying causes of distress. Since the patient cannot communicate through words, it is essential to pay close attention to their non-verbal cues such as facial expressions, body language, and changes in behavior. Distress in dementia patients can be caused by a variety of factors including physical discomfort, unmet needs, environmental stressors, emotional distress, or even medication side effects. By carefully observing and interpreting non-verbal cues, the nurse can gain insight into what might be causing the patient's distress and tailor interventions accordingly. Simply focusing on physical comfort measures may not address the root cause of the distress, and administering sedative medications without understanding the underlying cause is not considered best practice in palliative care for dementia patients.

Question 7 of 9

When Nurse Ace suubitted a report to the physician that she committed an error in medication. This is an example of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nurse Ace submitting a report to the physician about committing an error in medication demonstrates accountability. Accountability in healthcare refers to the responsibility of individuals to answer for their actions, decisions, and behaviors in the professional setting. By taking ownership of the mistake and informing the physician, Nurse Ace is showing accountability for her actions, ensuring that patient safety remains a priority. Compliance with reporting errors is essential for quality improvement and patient safety in healthcare settings.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Juvy's assessment reveals the following: Heart Rate is 110 beats per minute, has a vigorous cry, moves actively and with good flexion, normal skin color and bluish extremities. What would be thd APGAR score of Baby Sharon?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Baby Sharon's APGAR score can be determined by assessing five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Each criteria is given a score of 0, 1, or 2 points, with 2 being the highest score.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu

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