Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with generalized weakness, headache, and difficulty concentrating. Laboratory tests reveal normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. These findings are characteristic of anemia of chronic disease, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, there is a decrease in renal production of erythropoietin, leading to reduced stimulation of erythropoiesis and subsequent anemia. The normocytic normochromic anemia pattern is typical in anemia of chronic disease, as opposed to microcytic hypochromic anemia seen in iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which is not described in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's presentation is chronic kidney disease.

Question 2 of 5

Before the education plan of the staff nurse can be finalized and implemented, it is best that it is reviewed by the

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before finalizing and implementing the education plan for the staff nurse, it is important to have the plan reviewed by the nurse supervisor. The nurse supervisor is directly responsible for overseeing the staff nurses and their education and training needs. They have a good understanding of the staff nurse's current skills, areas for improvement, and training requirements. By involving the nurse supervisor in the review process, you can ensure that the education plan is aligned with the overall goals and needs of the nursing staff and the department. Additionally, the nurse supervisor can provide valuable input and insights to help tailor the education plan to meet the specific needs of the staff nurses under their supervision.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules in antigen presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are responsible for presenting endogenous antigens, such as viral or intracellular proteins, to CD8+ T cells. These antigens are derived from within the cell, either synthesized within the cell itself or taken up from the cytoplasm. CD8+ T cells, also known as cytotoxic T cells, recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules and play a key role in cell-mediated immunity by destroying infected or abnormal cells.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for postoperative pain management. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing respiratory depression in the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation with pulse oximetry is essential for preventing respiratory depression in a patient prescribed an opioid analgesic. Opioid analgesics can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression. By constantly monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation levels with pulse oximetry, nurses can promptly detect any signs of respiratory depression and intervene early to prevent serious complications. This allows for timely adjustments in the medication dosage or administration of other supportive measures to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory compromise. Administering naloxone prophylactically may be necessary in case of an opioid overdose but is not typically done as a preventive measure. Encouraging deep breathing exercises can help prevent respiratory complications postoperatively but may not be sufficient in the presence of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Administering bronchodilators as needed is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression caused by opioid analgesics.

Question 5 of 5

A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation. On examination, the uterus is tender, and the fundus feels firm. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding with a tender, firm uterus at 28 weeks gestation is abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition can be life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus, as it can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the oxygen and nutrients supply to the fetus. The presentation typically includes severe abdominal pain, dark red or maroon vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm uterus due to the blood accumulation behind the placenta. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.

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