A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash at the site of a tick bite. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash at the site of a tick bite. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Borrelia burgdorferi, which is the bacterium responsible for causing Lyme disease. The classic presentation of Lyme disease includes fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash, known as erythema migrans. This rash typically appears at the site of a tick bite. If left untreated, Lyme disease can progress to involve multiple organ systems and lead to more severe complications. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of malaria, which typically presents with symptoms such as fever, chills, and fatigue, but it does not cause a "bull's eye" rash. Trypanosoma cruzi is the parasite responsible for Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms such as fever, swelling at the site of entry (typically the bite wound), and enlarged lymph nodes, but it does not

Question 2 of 9

The group was observant as to the activities taking place in the delivery room. One of the activities involved social processes, which can be better explored. Which of the following qualitative research method should be used?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Grounded theory is a qualitative research method that focuses on generating theory from data rather than testing pre-existing theories. In this scenario, where the goal is to explore social processes observed in the delivery room activities, grounded theory would be the most appropriate method. This method allows researchers to systematically collect and analyze data in order to develop theoretical explanations for social phenomena. By using grounded theory, researchers can explore the interactions, behaviors, and social processes at play in the delivery room in a structured and systematic way, thereby gaining insights into these phenomena through an inductive approach.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with severe headache, blurred vision, and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal elevated white blood cell count, thrombocytosis, and presence of JAK2 V617F mutation. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation of severe headache, blurred vision, and fatigue, along with the laboratory findings of elevated white blood cell count, thrombocytosis, and JAK2 V617F mutation, are characteristic of essential thrombocythemia. This is a myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the clonal proliferation of megakaryocytes, leading to an increased platelet count. The JAK2 V617F mutation is commonly found in essential thrombocythemia and other myeloproliferative disorders. The symptoms of essential thrombocythemia can be related to the increased blood viscosity and risk of thrombosis due to the elevated platelet count. Polycythemia vera would present with elevated red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, along with other features such as pruritus after a hot bath. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML

Question 4 of 9

A patient expresses frustration with the healthcare system's inefficiencies. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response when a patient expresses frustration with the healthcare system's inefficiencies is to listen actively to the patient's concerns, acknowledge the challenges they are facing, and offer support. It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's feelings and demonstrate empathy, rather than dismissing or ignoring their frustrations. By offering support and showing understanding, the nurse can help the patient feel heard and valued, which is an essential aspect of providing patient-centered care. This approach can also help to strengthen the nurse-patient relationship and build trust, ultimately leading to better outcomes for the patient's overall healthcare experience.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse anticipates that which one is prescribed to prevent a common bacterial complication from the dog bite?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic commonly prescribed for the prevention of bacterial infections that can result from animal bites, such as dog bites. Dog bites are often contaminated with bacteria and can lead to infections, particularly from organisms such as Pasteurella multocida. Ciprofloxacin is effective against a broad range of bacteria, including those commonly found in animal bites, making it a suitable choice for infection prophylaxis in this scenario. Ibuprofen is a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory medication, tetanus toxoid is given to prevent tetanus infection, and meperidine is a narcotic analgesic used for pain relief, but none of these options specifically target bacterial prevention in the case of a dog bite.

Question 6 of 9

How many years are medico-legal charts stored?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Medico-legal charts are typically stored for a minimum of 10 years after the case is closed to ensure compliance with legal requirements and to provide a comprehensive record of the medical care provided. This duration allows for potential future reference, follow-up treatment, or legal purposes that may arise within the specified timeframe. It is important to maintain these records for an extended period to protect both the patient's rights and the healthcare provider's accountability. Additionally, storing medico-legal charts for 10 years aligns with standard retention practices in the healthcare industry.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following structures is responsible for transporting food from the oral cavity to the esophagus during swallowing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The pharynx is the structure responsible for transporting food from the oral cavity to the esophagus during swallowing. When food is chewed and mixed with saliva in the oral cavity, it forms a bolus that is propelled to the pharynx by the tongue. The pharynx serves as a common passageway for both air and food, allowing the bolus to pass into the esophagus while preventing it from entering the trachea. The epiglottis, although important in preventing food from entering the airway, is not directly involved in the transportation of food from the oral cavity to the esophagus.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Emma advised the patient to quit smoking because nicotine wil1 contribute to _______.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nicotine, a substance found in cigarettes, is known to have harmful effects on pregnancy. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to numerous complications, one of which is the increased risk of delivering a low birth weight infant. Low birth weight infants are born weighing less than 5.5 pounds (2.5 kilograms) and are at a higher risk of various health issues, developmental delays, and even mortality. Therefore, Nurse Emma advised the patient to quit smoking to reduce the risk of having a low birth weight infant.

Question 9 of 9

The MOST significant contributory factor to the development of lung cancer is ________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most significant contributory factor to the development of lung cancer is being a cigarette smoker. Cigarette smoking is directly linked to approximately 85% of lung cancer cases. The harmful substances in tobacco smoke, such as carcinogens, damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer over time. Smokers are at a significantly higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers. Therefore, being a cigarette smoker is the primary and most influential risk factor for developing lung cancer.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days