ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a maculopapular rash that started on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities. Laboratory tests reveal leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, malaise, maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading to the trunk and extremities, along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, is highly suggestive of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) caused by Rickettsia rickettsii. RMSF is a tick-borne illness transmitted by the American dog tick, Rocky Mountain wood tick, and brown dog tick. The constellation of symptoms described aligns well with the typical presentation of RMSF. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, which presents with erythema migrans but does not typically cause leukopenia or thrombocytopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of severe malaria and would present with symptoms such as cyclic fevers, anemia, and jaundice but not the described rash distribution.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a dislocated shoulder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For managing a conscious patient with a dislocated shoulder, the appropriate action is to provide analgesia to help manage the pain and discomfort associated with the dislocation. Applying ice packs to the affected shoulder can also help reduce swelling and provide some relief. It is important to refrain from attempting to reduce the dislocation by pulling on the affected arm, as this can cause further damage and worsen the injury. Applying a splint to immobilize the arm in the dislocated position is also not recommended, as this can lead to complications and hinder the reduction process. Administering intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration is not directly related to managing a dislocated shoulder in a conscious patient.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube insertion for a patient requiring long-term enteral feeding. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural success?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Coordinating with radiology or gastroenterology for procedural guidance is crucial to ensure the success of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube insertion. This procedure is typically performed under endoscopic guidance to ensure proper placement of the tube into the stomach through the abdominal wall. Radiology or gastroenterology professionals are trained to perform and guide the insertion procedure, making their involvement essential for a successful outcome. Additionally, their expertise helps minimize the risk of complications during and after the PEG tube placement.
Question 4 of 9
A woman in active labor presents with a prolonged latent phase, characterized by irregular and infrequent contractions. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maternal dehydration can contribute to a prolonged latent phase during labor. Dehydration can lead to reduced blood volume and electrolyte imbalances, which can result in ineffective uterine contractions. Without adequate hydration, the uterus may not contract effectively, causing irregular and infrequent contractions. It is important for the nurse to assess the woman's hydration status and encourage her to stay hydrated during labor to help regulate contractions and progress labor.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A family history of breast cancer is a known risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer. Individuals with a close relative (such as a mother, sister, or daughter) who has had breast cancer have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer. This increased risk is due to shared genetic factors that can predispose individuals to both breast and ovarian cancers. Therefore, having a family history of breast cancer is an important risk factor to consider in the assessment of ovarian cancer risk.
Question 6 of 9
Ms. Ruby 28 year old also a patient of Nurse Gladys is suffering from Rheumatic fever due to a previous streptococcal infection. In monitoring patient's status, the nurse should document which of the following TYPICAL manifestation EXCEPT ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Rheumatic fever, typical manifestations include an increase in body temperature, non-pruritic rashes, and migratory joint pains. Voluntary muscle spasm is not a typical manifestation of Rheumatic fever. The main clinical features of Rheumatic fever are related to the inflammation of the heart, joints, skin, and central nervous system. Muscle spasms are not a prominent feature of this condition. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these typical manifestations to effectively monitor and manage the patient's condition.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 8 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis is NOT RELEVANT to sexual health?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the given situation, the nursing diagnosis that is NOT RELEVANT to sexual health is option B, Health-seeking behaviors related to reproductive functioning. This diagnosis focuses on the patient's proactive approach to seeking healthcare services related to reproductive health matters. However, in the situation presented of a pregnant patient with sickle cell anemia experiencing fever, painful swelling, and in labor pain, the immediate priority lies in addressing the health issues related to sickle cell disease and the current pregnancy. Sexual health is not the primary concern in this scenario compared to managing the complications of sickle cell anemia during pregnancy. Therefore, the diagnosis related to health-seeking behaviors related to reproductive functioning is not as pertinent in this specific case.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types and is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is a premalignant condition of the cervix that is characterized by the presence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types. HPV infection is a major risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. CIN is typically detected on routine cervical screening tests such as Pap smears or HPV testing. If left untreated, CIN can progress to invasive cervical cancer. Therefore, the presence of high-risk HPV types in CIN lesions indicates an increased risk of developing cervical cancer.