ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after a trip to sub-Saharan Africa is highly indicative of malaria. Specifically, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination points towards Plasmodium falciparum as the most likely causative agent. Plasmodium falciparum is the most deadly of the Plasmodium species that cause malaria and is responsible for the majority of severe malaria cases worldwide. It is transmitted through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. Treatment for Plasmodium falciparum infection usually involves antimalarial medications such as artemisinin-based combination therapies.
Question 2 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. On examination, an abdominal mass is palpable, and bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ovarian torsion is the most likely cause of the pregnant woman's symptoms as described. Ovarian torsion occurs when the ovary twists on its pedicle, leading to compromised blood flow to the ovary. This can cause severe abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. On examination, an abdominal mass may be palpable due to an enlarged, twisted ovary. Bowel sounds may be diminished due to the effect of the torsion on surrounding structures. Ectopic pregnancy, threatened abortion, and placenta previa are less likely to present with an abdominal mass and diminished bowel sounds.
Question 3 of 5
During the active phase of labor, the nurse observes that the cervix is dilated to 6 cm and the contractions are regular, lasting 60 seconds each, occurring every 3 minutes. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the active phase of labor, a cervical dilation of 6 cm and regular contractions lasting 60 seconds each, occurring every 3 minutes indicate good progress in labor. The nurse should continue to monitor the progress closely by assessing the mother's vital signs, fetal heart rate, and the pattern of contractions. It is important to provide support and encouragement to the mother, continue with comfort measures, and be prepared to assist with the delivery when the cervix is fully dilated. This stage of labor is focused on active dilation and effacement of the cervix, and it is not yet time for the mother to push or for the nurse to administer oxytocin to augment labor.
Question 4 of 5
A woman in active labor is experiencing intense pain and requests non-pharmacological pain relief measures. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a woman in active labor is experiencing intense pain and requests non-pharmacological pain relief measures, the nurse should prioritize providing continuous labor support. Continuous labor support, also known as a doula or labor companion, has been shown to be effective in reducing the perception of pain and improving labor outcomes. The presence of a supportive person can provide physical, emotional, and informational support, helping the woman cope with the pain and navigate through the labor process. This intervention can enhance the woman's overall experience of labor and improve maternal and neonatal outcomes without the need for pharmacological interventions. Administering opioids, performing epidural analgesia, or initiating nitrous oxide inhalation are pharmacological pain relief measures and may not align with the woman's preference for non-pharmacological options.
Question 5 of 5
A woman in active labor is experiencing a shoulder dystocia during delivery. What nursing intervention should be prioritized?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency where one of the baby's shoulders becomes impacted behind the mother's pubic bone after the head delivers. This can lead to compression of the umbilical cord and compromise fetal oxygenation. The most critical nursing intervention in managing shoulder dystocia is applying suprapubic pressure to dislodge the impacted shoulder and allow for delivery of the baby. By gently pushing downwards on the mother's abdomen just above the pubic bone, the shoulder can be released, and the baby can be delivered successfully. This intervention should be prioritized to prevent potential complications for both the mother and the baby. Episiotomy may be considered if necessary, but it is secondary to addressing the shoulder dystocia. Oropharyngeal airway insertion and administering magnesium sulfate are not indicated in the immediate management of shoulder dystocia.