A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, which is the parasite that causes malaria. The symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a camping trip are highly suggestive of malaria, especially if the patient has thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is known to cause severe malaria with complications such as thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The other options, Trypanosoma cruzi, Borrelia burgdorferi, and Leishmania donovani, do not typically present with all of the symptoms described and are not associated with the laboratory findings of thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. In the scenario described, the painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation with a closed cervix is classic for placenta previa. This condition is more common in the third trimester and can be diagnosed through ultrasound. It is important to manage placenta previa carefully to prevent complications such as severe bleeding, preterm birth, and maternal/fetal distress.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The constellation of severe lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge in a pregnant woman raises suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness are classic physical exam findings for PID. The presence of bilateral adnexal masses further supports the diagnosis, as PID can lead to the formation of tubo-ovarian abscesses. Ectopic pregnancy may present with similar symptoms but is less likely in this case as bilateral adnexal masses suggest a more diffuse inflammatory process. Placenta previa would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Ovarian torsion would present with sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain and is less likely to involve both ovaries simultaneously.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged rupture of membranes (>24 hours) increases the risk of intrauterine infection for both the mother and the fetus. When the amniotic sac has been ruptured for an extended period, there is a higher likelihood of bacteria entering the uterus, leading to chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the fetal membranes due to infection). Intrauterine infection can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus, potentially causing sepsis, preterm labor, and other complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for signs and symptoms of infection in both the mother and fetus when managing a woman in active labor with prolonged rupture of membranes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a woman in active labor experiencing a prolonged second stage with inadequate expulsive efforts, the appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate fetal descent would be to apply fundal pressure. Fundal pressure, or applying pressure on the upper abdomen just above the uterine fundus, can help in directing the fetal head downwards and aiding in the descent through the birth canal. It is important to note that fundal pressure should be applied carefully and with proper technique to prevent excessive force that could potentially harm the mother or the baby. Encouraging the mother to push forcefully during contractions can be helpful, but the addition of fundal pressure can provide extra assistance in cases of inadequate progress. Immediate cesarean section may be considered if other interventions are unsuccessful or if there are concerns for fetal distress. Administering intravenous magnesium sulfate for uterine relaxation is not indicated in this situation.