ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with crushing chest pain that lasts longer than 20 minutes, diaphoresis, and dyspnea. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is most likely experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) based on the presentation of crushing chest pain lasting longer than 20 minutes, diaphoresis, dyspnea, and ST-segment elevation on the ECG. These symptoms are consistent with the classic presentation of an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), which is a type of acute MI that is characterized by prolonged ischemia leading to myocardial cell death. In this case, the ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads indicates myocardial damage in the corresponding area of the heart supplied by the affected coronary artery. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow to the affected myocardium and prevent further complications.
Question 2 of 9
The patient refuses to take the medication because it causes diarrhea. Nurse Parker explains the action of the drug but the patient vehemently refuses the medication. What should be the INITIAL action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when faced with a situation where a patient refuses to take medication after education and explanation is to notify the physician. The physician may need to be informed so they can reassess the medication and potentially explore alternative options or make adjustments based on the patient's concerns and preferences. It is important for medical decisions to be made in collaboration with the healthcare team to ensure the best care for the patient. Consulting the physician also helps in avoiding any potential negative outcomes resulting from the patient's refusal to take the prescribed medication. Once the physician is aware, further actions can be discussed and implemented to address the patient's concerns.
Question 3 of 9
Patient was visited by the anesthesiologist and explained the anesthesia for his surgery. Which of the following type of anesthesia would you expect to be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When the anesthesiologist visits a patient to explain the anesthesia for surgery, the most likely type of anesthesia to be ordered in this scenario would be general anesthesia. General anesthesia is a state of controlled unconsciousness where the patient is completely unaware and unresponsive during the procedure. This type of anesthesia is typically used for surgeries that are more complex, lengthy, or invasive, requiring the patient to be completely still and asleep throughout the operation.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Edna admits a patient from the ER to the medical unit. The patient is very restless with IV lines and a urinary catheter. She was put to bed and the nurse applied a body restraint without the doctor's order. Nurse Edna's action can be liable for _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Battery in the context of healthcare refers to the intentional and unauthorized touching of a patient. By applying a body restraint without a doctor's order, Nurse Edna has potentially committed battery against the patient. It is important for healthcare providers to obtain proper authorization before implementing any physical restraints on a patient to avoid legal liabilities such as battery.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation of a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, above the clavicle, along with the cytology showing clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm is most indicative of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors derived from the parathyroid gland that can produce excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hyperparathyroidism. The characteristic histology of parathyroid adenomas includes chief cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.
Question 6 of 9
During the surgical procedure, the nurse notices a discrepancy between the patient's identification bracelet and the surgical consent form. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If the nurse notices a discrepancy between the patient's identification bracelet and the surgical consent form, the immediate action should be to inform the surgeon and anesthesia provider. It is crucial to address any discrepancies before proceeding with the surgical procedure to ensure patient safety and prevent any potential errors or complications. The surgical team needs to be made aware of the issue so that they can verify the correct patient information and ensure that all necessary steps are taken to proceed safely. Communication and collaboration among the healthcare team members are essential in such situations to prevent any harm to the patient.
Question 7 of 9
What would Merle do to keep abreast with the latest trends in peri-operative nursing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To keep abreast with the latest trends in peri-operative nursing, Merle should employ a combination of attending training and seminars, performing researches, and pursuing graduate studies. Attending training and seminars will expose Merle to new information, techniques, and best practices in peri-operative nursing. Performing researches will help Merle stay updated with current developments and evidence-based practices in the field. Pursuing graduate studies will provide Merle with advanced knowledge and skills, allowing for a deeper understanding of peri-operative nursing concepts and practices. By incorporating all of these strategies, Merle can ensure that he remains knowledgeable and competent in his role as a peri-operative nurse.
Question 8 of 9
The INITIAL priority assessment performed by the nurse, when admitting a patients the unit after abdominal surgery is to check for ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When admitting a patient to the unit after abdominal surgery, the initial priority assessment performed by the nurse should focus on assessing the patient's respiratory function and airway. This is crucial because post-surgical patients are at risk for complications such as respiratory depression, atelectasis, and airway obstruction. Monitoring the patient's breathing pattern, oxygen saturation levels, and ensuring a patent airway are essential in preventing respiratory distress or failure. Prompt assessment and intervention in this area can help prevent respiratory complications and ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Once the patient's respiratory status is stable, the nurse can then proceed to assess other aspects such as the surgical site, skin color, temperature, and responsiveness to stimuli.
Question 9 of 9
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears healthy, and there is no cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presenting with vaginal bleeding and a healthy cervix on examination, the most likely cause would be a cervical polyp. Cervical polyps are benign growths that can occur on the cervix and are often asymptomatic but can occasionally cause postmenopausal bleeding. Their appearance on examination would typically be a non-malignant finding with no cervical motion tenderness. Cervical cancer, endometrial cancer, and vaginal cancer would typically present with different examination findings and risk factors.