ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is presenting with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina. Additionally, ST-segment depression on ECG is a common finding in patients with stable angina. Stable angina is typically caused by coronary artery disease, which leads to partial obstruction of the coronary arteries resulting in inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle during periods of increased demand (such as exertion). The chest pain is usually predictable and reproducible, occurring with similar intensity and duration during episodes of exertion. Rest or nitroglycerin can help relieve the symptoms by increasing coronary blood flow. It is important to differentiate stable angina from unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction, which have different management and prognostic implications.
Question 2 of 9
When a patient is admitted to the OB ward with complains of dizziness and body weakness, this is an example of______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is admitted to the OB ward with complaints of dizziness and body weakness, this information pertains to what the patient is feeling or experiencing, which is subjective data. Subjective data is based on the patient's symptoms, feelings, and experiences as reported by the patient themselves. In this case, dizziness and body weakness are subjective symptoms described by the patient, and they cannot be objectively measured or quantified. It is essential for healthcare providers to consider subjective data along with objective data (measurable and observable signs) when assessing and diagnosing a patient's condition.
Question 3 of 9
A woman in active labor presents with a prolonged latent phase, characterized by irregular and ineffective contractions. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maternal anxiety can contribute to a prolonged latent phase during labor. Stress and anxiety can trigger the release of stress hormones such as adrenaline, which can interfere with the production of oxytocin, the hormone responsible for initiating contractions. This can result in irregular and ineffective contractions, leading to a prolonged latent phase. It is important for the nurse to assess the woman's anxiety levels and provide reassurance and support to help facilitate the progression of labor.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from sub-Saharan Africa are consistent with malaria. Intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites observed on blood smear examination are characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly Plasmodium falciparum, which is the most common and deadliest species causing malaria in sub-Saharan Africa. Plasmodium falciparum can lead to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, if not promptly treated. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not malaria. Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for Lyme disease, which typically presents with a different set of symptoms like erythema migrans rash. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis, not malaria.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of type 2 diabetes Mellitus?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues and defective beta cell secretion with loss of insulin. In type 2 diabetes, there is typically not destruction of beta cells from an autoimmune mechanism that leads to lack of insulin and hyperglycemia as seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Instead, in type 2 diabetes, the pancreas initially produces insulin, but the body's cells become resistant to its effects. This results in hyperglycemia due to the inability of the body to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, choice C is not true for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Question 6 of 9
Pelvic ultrasound can detect, which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pelvic ultrasound can detect fetal congenital defects, placenta previa, and fetal lung maturity.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. Which parameter should the nurse monitor closely during carvedilol therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carvedilol is a beta-blocker primarily used to manage heart failure and hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure closely during carvedilol therapy is crucial because it helps assess the drug's effectiveness in managing heart failure and controlling hypertension. Carvedilol works by blocking certain receptors in the heart and blood vessels, which can lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure fluctuations allows healthcare providers to adjust the dosage accordingly to achieve optimal results and prevent potential complications in patients with heart failure. While monitoring blood glucose levels, serum potassium levels, and liver function tests are essential in managing other conditions or medications, the priority in a patient being prescribed carvedilol for heart failure is to monitor blood pressure levels.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is having elective surgery under general anesthesia. Who is responsible for obtaining the informed-consent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary responsibility for obtaining informed consent lies with the surgeon who will be performing the procedure. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider explains the procedure, benefits, risks, and alternatives to the patient, allowing them to make an informed decision about their care. While other healthcare team members may also participate in this process, the ultimate responsibility typically rests with the surgeon as they are the one performing the surgery.