A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and is exacerbated by deep breathing or changes in body position. The pain improves with leaning forward. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Questions 165

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ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and is exacerbated by deep breathing or changes in body position. The pain improves with leaning forward. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. Patients with pericarditis typically present with sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breathing, changes in body position, and coughing. The pain tends to improve when the patient leans forward. This characteristic symptom of pericarditis is known as "pleuritic" chest pain. In contrast, stable angina presents as predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medications. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is considered a medical emergency. Myocarditis involves inflammation of the heart muscle and may present with symptoms such as chest pain, but it does not typically have the characteristic of worsening with deep breathing or changes in body position.

Question 2 of 9

Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nurse Cris should employ the communication technique of summarizing to successfully capture the details of the meeting. Summarizing involves condensing the information provided into a concise and organized form, which would help Nurse Cris remember and retain the key points discussed during the meeting. By summarizing the details, Nurse Cris can ensure that no important information is missed and can also confirm understanding by reflecting back the main points discussed. This technique promotes effective communication by enhancing clarity and reinforcing comprehension.

Question 3 of 9

A community clinic does primary care for patients. Most often the one who manages this is which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a community clinic providing primary care for patients, the most common healthcare professional who manages patient care is a physician. Physicians, also known as doctors, are trained and licensed to diagnose and treat a wide range of medical conditions. They are responsible for conducting exams, prescribing medications, ordering tests, and developing treatment plans for patients. While other healthcare professionals such as nurses, midwives, and barangay health workers also play important roles in providing care, physicians typically lead the team, make critical decisions, and provide overall management of patient care in a primary care setting like a community clinic.

Question 4 of 9

A postpartum client exhibits signs of wound infection, including erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage from a cesarean incision. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a postpartum client exhibits signs of wound infection, such as erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage from a cesarean incision, it is essential to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Wound infections can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. The healthcare provider will assess the infection, possibly order further diagnostic tests, and determine the appropriate course of treatment, which may include antibiotics or additional wound care measures. Applying a dressing or irrigating the wound may be part of the treatment plan prescribed by the healthcare provider, but the first step is always to seek guidance from the provider.

Question 5 of 9

Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with ____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, are promptly managed with epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps counteract the severe symptoms by relaxing the muscles in the airways, constricting blood vessels, and decreasing swelling. It acts quickly to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of the allergic reaction and is crucial in managing anaphylaxis effectively. Other medications like antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) and corticosteroids may be used as adjuncts, but epinephrine remains the primary treatment for immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 6 of 9

Nurse Juvy's assessment reveals the following: Heart Rate is 110 beats per minute, has a vigorous cry, moves actively and with good flexion, normal skin color and bluish extremities. What would be thd APGAR score of Baby Sharon?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Baby Sharon's APGAR score can be determined by assessing five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Each criteria is given a score of 0, 1, or 2 points, with 2 being the highest score.

Question 7 of 9

A patient is reluctant to undergo a recommended procedure due to fear of pain. What is the nurse's best approach to address this fear?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address the patient's fear of pain is to provide accurate information about pain management strategies and options. In doing so, the nurse can help alleviate the patient's concerns by empowering them with knowledge and potential solutions for managing pain during and after the procedure. By acknowledging the patient's fear and addressing it with practical information, the nurse can build trust, reduce anxiety, and create a more supportive and collaborative environment for the patient. Dismissing, ignoring, or invalidating the patient's fear would not be effective in addressing the underlying concerns and could potentially lead to increased distress and resistance to the recommended procedure.

Question 8 of 9

A 22-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted and enlarged. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Adenomyosis is a condition characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium (muscle wall) of the uterus. It can present with symptoms such as cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. On pelvic examination, the uterus may be retroverted (tilted backward) and enlarged due to the presence of adenomyotic nodules within the uterine muscle. Adenomyosis can also cause heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). Endometriosis, on the other hand, involves the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus and can cause similar symptoms but is less likely to result in uterine enlargement or retroversion. Leiomyomas (uterine fibroids) are benign tumors of the uterine muscle and can also cause pelvic pain and abnormal uterine enlargement but are less likely to be associated with dysmenorrhea and infertility

Question 9 of 9

Non verbal communication is as strong in conveying information because the nurse can _________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nonverbal communication is as strong in conveying information because the nurse can effectively interpret and understand gestures made by the individual they are interacting with. Gestures such as hand movements, facial expressions, eye contact, and body posture can communicate a lot of information without the use of words. By observing these nonverbal cues, nurses can better comprehend the emotions, needs, and feelings of their patients or colleagues, leading to more effective communication and overall better care. Nonverbal communication, including gestures, plays a significant role in creating a holistic understanding of individuals' messages beyond just words.

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