ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and a history of recent surgery or trauma. An echocardiogram reveals a large pericardial effusion with right ventricular collapse during diastole. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cardiovascular disorder most likely responsible for the symptoms described is a pericardial effusion. A pericardial effusion is an accumulation of fluid within the pericardial space surrounding the heart. When a large pericardial effusion is present, it can lead to compression of the heart chambers, resulting in symptoms such as chest pain and dyspnea.
Question 2 of 9
A postpartum client exhibits signs of severe dehydration, including dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and oliguria. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids as ordered is the most appropriate nursing action for a postpartum client exhibiting signs of severe dehydration. Severe dehydration, as indicated by dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and oliguria, requires immediate intervention to restore fluid balance effectively. Intravenous fluids deliver fluids directly into the bloodstream, ensuring rapid rehydration and addressing the critical situation promptly. Offering oral rehydration solutions may not be sufficient to address severe dehydration, and providing education on fluid intake can be important for prevention but is not the immediate priority in this scenario. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential, but initiating intravenous fluids promptly is crucial in managing severe dehydration.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and exertional dyspnea. Laboratory tests reveal severe anemia, low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and elevated total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fatigue, pallor, exertional dyspnea along with the laboratory findings of severe anemia, low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and elevated TIBC are consistent with iron deficiency anemia. In iron deficiency anemia, there is inadequate iron available for erythropoiesis leading to microcytic hypochromic anemia. The low serum iron and transferrin saturation, along with the elevated TIBC, indicate decreased iron stores and increased iron-binding capacity as the body tries to compensate for the deficiency by increasing absorption and recycling of iron. Anemia of chronic disease typically presents with mild to moderate anemia, normal to low TIBC, and low transferrin saturation due to iron sequestration in macrophages. Sideroblastic anemia usually has elevated serum iron, high saturation, and normal to low TIBC. Thalassemia presents with microcytic hyp
Question 4 of 9
Mr. C is an older patient with a known history of peripheral vascular disease. The nurse places a heating pad directly on the patient's lower leg to relieve muscle spasms. The heating pad causes a burn, the area becomes infected, and the patient eventually must have a skin graft. This is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Negligence refers to the failure to take proper care in doing something. In this scenario, the nurse failed to exercise the standard of care expected in placing a heating pad directly on Mr. C's lower leg, knowing his history of peripheral vascular disease. This failure led to a burn and subsequent infection that required a skin graft for treatment. The actions of the nurse were negligent as they did not meet the expected standard of care, resulting in harm to the patient. This situation does not fit the definition of assault, malpractice, or vicarious liability, making negligence the most appropriate choice.
Question 5 of 9
Mrs. Carpio has an order of Thiazide diuretics for her edema. The following is the entry that you expect to be written in her progress report EXCEPT ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The entry you expect to be written in Mrs. Carpio's progress report should include details related to monitoring her response to the Thiazide diuretics and ensuring her safety. Options A, B, and C all focus on these aspects by monitoring serum electrolytes, intake and output, and weight before drug administration, which are important considerations when a patient is on Thiazide diuretics. However, specifying the time of drug administration (8 o'clock in the evening) is not necessary in the progress report entry. The focus should be on the patient's response to the medication and the associated monitoring parameters. Time of administration is more relevant for nursing care plans or medication schedules.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following salivary glands is located superior and anterior to the ear and produces mainly serous saliva?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The parotid gland is the salivary gland that is located superior and anterior to the ear. It mainly produces serous saliva, which is a thin, watery fluid rich in enzymes. The other salivary glands mentioned are the sublingual gland, submandibular gland, and submaxillary gland, all of which have different locations and produce different types of saliva.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of type 2 diabetes Mellitus?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues and defective beta cell secretion with loss of insulin. In type 2 diabetes, there is typically not destruction of beta cells from an autoimmune mechanism that leads to lack of insulin and hyperglycemia as seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Instead, in type 2 diabetes, the pancreas initially produces insulin, but the body's cells become resistant to its effects. This results in hyperglycemia due to the inability of the body to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, choice C is not true for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, which is the parasite that causes malaria. The symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a camping trip are highly suggestive of malaria, especially if the patient has thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is known to cause severe malaria with complications such as thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The other options, Trypanosoma cruzi, Borrelia burgdorferi, and Leishmania donovani, do not typically present with all of the symptoms described and are not associated with the laboratory findings of thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Rey with the members of the team. from a tertiary hospital is going for their annual outreach program Operation TULI". There were 3000 patients who came in the morning with only 4 doctors, 3 nurses and 1 pharmacist. Due to the volume of patients, Nurse Rey, was asked to participate in per forming circumcision with the rest of the doctors. Nurse Rey can be 1iable of committing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nurse Rey can be liable of committing malpractice by performing circumcisions without the proper training, qualifications, and legal authority to do so. Malpractice refers to negligence or failure to provide a standard level of care that results in harm to a patient. In this case, Nurse Rey participating in performing circumcisions may not have the necessary skills and expertise compared to the doctors who are trained to perform such procedures. This can lead to potential harm or complications for the patients, making it a case of malpractice.