ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cortisol levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, and elevated cortisol levels strongly suggest Cushing's syndrome. Cushing's syndrome is a disorder characterized by excessive levels of cortisol, either due to an endogenous (e.g., adrenal tumor) or exogenous (e.g., prolonged steroid use) source. The classic physical features of Cushing's syndrome include central obesity with thin extremities (truncal obesity), moon face (rounding and reddening of the face), buffalo hump (accumulation of fat between the shoulders), and purple striae (stretch marks that are wide and purple in color). In the context of the elevated cortisol levels, these clinical signs are highly indicative of Cushing's syndrome. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and diabetes mellitus would not typically present with the specific combination of symptoms described.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the PRIORITY action of the nurse for Sonny who is on Oxygen therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Checking the flow of oxygen is the priority action because it ensures that Sonny is receiving the correct amount of oxygen prescribed by the healthcare provider. Before connecting the flow meter to the oxygen outlet, turning on the oxygen, or attaching the humidifier, it is crucial to verify that the flow rate is appropriate for Sonny's condition. Monitoring and adjusting the oxygen flow will help maintain the desired oxygen saturation levels and prevent potential complications related to oxygen therapy.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, particularly after blowing the nose or during dry weather. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a friable, vascular lesion in Little's area. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical scenario described is consistent with a diagnosis of anterior epistaxis due to a prominent vascular lesion located in Little's area, which is an important site for nosebleeds. Silver nitrate cautery is the most appropriate intervention for managing this condition. Silver nitrate cautery is a commonly used method to chemically cauterize and eliminate the friable blood vessels responsible for recurrent epistaxis. It is a cost-effective and minimally invasive technique that can be easily performed in an outpatient setting. Nasal packing with anterior nasal tampons might be considered in cases of severe or refractory epistaxis, but in this scenario, where the source of bleeding is localized and identifiable, silver nitrate cautery is the treatment of choice. Endoscopic cauterization of the sphenopalatine artery and surgical excision of a nasal polyp are unnecessary and overly invasive for the described scenario.
Question 4 of 9
The PRC-Board of Nursing (PR-BON) ha5 the power to regulate Nursing Practice in the Philippines. The regulatory functions include the following except
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, issuing a permit for the opening of nursing programs in the country. The PRC-Board of Nursing (PR-BON) in the Philippines primarily focuses on regulating nursing practice and ensuring the quality and standards of nursing care provided in the country. While they have the authority to oversee aspects such as certification of registered nurses, enforcing quality standards, and monitoring proper conduct of nurses, the responsibility of issuing permits for the opening of nursing programs typically falls under the jurisdiction of other relevant educational or accrediting bodies.
Question 5 of 9
A patient in the ICU develops catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI) associated with a central venous catheter. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary intervention that should be prioritized for managing a catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI) associated with a central venous catheter is to remove the central venous catheter. CRBSI is a serious complication that can lead to severe infections and sepsis. The removal of the catheter is crucial to eliminate the source of the infection and prevent further dissemination of the pathogens into the bloodstream. Once the catheter is removed, the healthcare team can consider other interventions such as administering targeted antibiotics based on culture results, performing blood cultures to identify the causative organism, and implementing sterile dressing changes and catheter care protocols. However, immediate removal of the catheter takes precedence in managing CRBSI to prevent worsening of the infection and improve patient outcomes.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The described presentation is classic for acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition is characterized by sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The red eye, steamy cornea (corneal edema), and mid-dilated non-reactive pupil are consistent with acute angle-closure glaucoma. The sudden increase in intraocular pressure leads to impaired aqueous humor outflow, causing these symptoms. Immediate intervention is required to prevent permanent vision loss in such cases. Central retinal artery occlusion would present with sudden painless vision loss. Optic neuritis typically presents with vision loss and pain with eye movements. Corneal ulcer presents with eye discomfort, foreign body sensation, and may have a history of corneal trauma or contact lens wear.
Question 7 of 9
After a throurough assessment by the physician-specialist, an order for an immediate sonogram was made specific for the medical condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the physician-specialist assessed the patient and determined that an immediate sonogram is needed for the medical condition. An intervention is a specific action taken in response to a medical need or condition. Ordering an immediate sonogram falls under the category of an intervention because it involves a timely and targeted diagnostic procedure to address the medical situation identified by the physician. The other options (A. Operation Room, C. Laboratory, D. CT scan) do not accurately represent the specific action of ordering a sonogram in response to the medical condition assessed by the physician.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements BEST describes Public Health Nursing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Public Health Nursing is a specialized field of nursing that focuses on promoting and protecting the health of populations and communities rather than individuals. One of the key principles of Public Health Nursing is the emphasis on health promotion and disease prevention strategies. This involves educating and empowering individuals, families, and communities to adopt healthy behaviors and lifestyles in order to prevent illness and improve overall well-being. Public Health Nurses work to address the root causes of health disparities and advocate for policies and programs that promote the health of entire populations. While providing care to sick individuals may be a component of Public Health Nursing, the primary focus is on preventing illness and promoting health at the community level.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports a history of sun exposure and outdoor activities. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on the trunk and proximal extremities is classic for tinea versicolor. Tinea versicolor is a common superficial fungal infection caused by Malassezia spp., which leads to hypo- or hyperpigmented patches on the skin. The condition often occurs in individuals with increased sebum production due to factors such as hot and humid climates, sweating, and oily skin. History of sun exposure and outdoor activities is also commonly reported by patients with tinea versicolor. Treatment usually involves antifungal medications applied topically or taken orally to eliminate the fungus. Differentiating tinea versicolor from other skin conditions, such as vitiligo, pityriasis rosea, or seborrheic keratosis, is important for appropriate management.