ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pituitary adenoma is a type of benign tumor that arises from the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. When a pituitary adenoma grows large enough, it can compress surrounding structures, including the optic chiasm – the point at which the optic nerves cross over in the brain. Compression of the optic chiasm can lead to symptoms such as vision problems (e.g., visual disturbances), headaches, and nausea/vomiting, which are consistent with the presentation described in the question. Meningiomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and medulloblastomas are less likely to compress the optic chiasm and present with different characteristic symptoms based on their locations and growth patterns.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse in the practice of her profession is guided by ________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse in the practice of her profession is guided by a code of ethics, which outlines the moral duties and professional responsibilities of nurses. The code of ethics provides a framework for ethical decision-making and sets standards for professional behavior within the nursing profession. Nurses are expected to adhere to the principles of the code of ethics in order to promote the well-being and safety of their patients, maintain professional integrity, and uphold the values of nursing practice.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a history of cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose is the most effective nursing intervention in preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis. Lactulose works by promoting the elimination of ammonia in the colon through its laxative effect, thereby reducing ammonia levels in the blood. High ammonia levels are associated with the development of hepatic encephalopathy. By administering lactulose as prescribed, nurses can help reduce the risk of encephalopathy and manage symptoms effectively. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is important in assessing the effectiveness of lactulose therapy, but administering lactulose is the primary nursing intervention in this situation. Dietary protein restriction is also commonly recommended; however, lactulose administration is the most vital intervention in this scenario. Additionally, encouraging increased fluid intake is important for overall liver health but is not as specific to preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy as administering lactulose.
Question 4 of 9
The incoming nurse on duty reported, the nurse is administering a medication, the patient says, "This pill looks different from the one I had taken before. " What is the APPROPRIATE action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient expresses concern about a medication looking different from what they had taken before, it is crucial for the nurse to verify the original prescription to ensure that the correct medication is being administered. Checking the original medication prescription will help the nurse confirm if there have been any changes or errors in the medication orders. This step is essential for patient safety and to prevent any potential medication errors. It is important to prioritize patient safety and well-being in such situations, and verifying the prescription is the appropriate action to take in this case.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE
Question 6 of 9
What is the primary purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting is to immobilize the injured area in order to prevent further injury. By stabilizing the fracture, splinting helps to reduce movement, which can alleviate pain, prevent additional damage to surrounding tissues, and minimize the risk of causing more harm during transport or while providing care. Splinting also helps to maintain proper alignment of the bones, which is crucial for the healing process and long-term function of the injured limb.
Question 7 of 9
Simple hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A simple hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus and cervix. It does not involve the removal of the fallopian tubes or ovaries. In some cases, the fallopian tubes may be removed along with the uterus, but this would be specified as a different type of hysterectomy (such as a total hysterectomy or a radical hysterectomy). The removal of the ovaries, if necessary, would be indicated as an oophorectomy.
Question 8 of 9
Which danger sign would warrant stoppage of pills?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevation of blood pressure would warrant stoppage of pills. High blood pressure, or hypertension, in a 4-year-old child is abnormal and needs prompt medical attention. Giving pills without monitoring or stopping them if blood pressure is elevated can lead to serious health complications. It is important to address the underlying cause of high blood pressure in a child, which may require further evaluation and management by a healthcare provider.
Question 9 of 9
The client asks the nurse about using decongestant nasal sprays. Which of the following statements by the nurse is CORRECT regarding its use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement regarding the use of decongestant nasal sprays is that "Nasal sprays should not be used for more than three days because it can worsen congestion." Prolonged use of decongestant nasal sprays can lead to rebound congestion, where the congestion worsens with extended use. Therefore, it is important to limit the use of these sprays to avoid this side effect. It is recommended to use decongestant nasal sprays for no longer than three consecutive days.