A patient presents with a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders and asymmetric color distribution on the face. The lesion has increased in size over the past few months. Which of the following conditions is most concerning for this presentation?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders and asymmetric color distribution on the face. The lesion has increased in size over the past few months. Which of the following conditions is most concerning for this presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation described, including a well-demarcated, hyperpigmented patch with irregular borders, asymmetric color distribution, and increase in size over a short period, is concerning for melanoma. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment in the skin. The irregular borders, color variation, and growth over time are classic signs of melanoma. Melanomas are potentially dangerous and should be evaluated promptly by a healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to distinguish melanoma from other benign lesions like melanocytic nevus (mole), lentigo simplex, and seborrheic keratosis, as early detection and treatment of melanoma can significantly impact patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, particularly after blowing the nose or during dry weather. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a friable, vascular lesion in Little's area. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The clinical scenario described is consistent with a diagnosis of anterior epistaxis due to a prominent vascular lesion located in Little's area, which is an important site for nosebleeds. Silver nitrate cautery is the most appropriate intervention for managing this condition. Silver nitrate cautery is a commonly used method to chemically cauterize and eliminate the friable blood vessels responsible for recurrent epistaxis. It is a cost-effective and minimally invasive technique that can be easily performed in an outpatient setting. Nasal packing with anterior nasal tampons might be considered in cases of severe or refractory epistaxis, but in this scenario, where the source of bleeding is localized and identifiable, silver nitrate cautery is the treatment of choice. Endoscopic cauterization of the sphenopalatine artery and surgical excision of a nasal polyp are unnecessary and overly invasive for the described scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with a sensation of a foreign body stuck in the throat, difficulty swallowing, and odynophagia. Flexible laryngoscopy reveals a submucosal mass arising from the posterior pharyngeal wall. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Zenker's diverticulum is a condition in which there is a pouch or sac that forms at the posterior pharyngeal wall above the upper esophageal sphincter. It can present with symptoms such as sensation of a foreign body stuck in the throat, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and odynophagia (painful swallowing). Flexible laryngoscopy can reveal a submucosal mass arising from the posterior pharyngeal wall, which is characteristic of Zenker's diverticulum.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In this condition, the blockage of the central retinal artery results in severe ischemia of the retina, leading to rapid and profound vision loss. The cherry-red spot at the macula is a result of preserved choroidal circulation contrasting with the pale, ischemic retina. Attenuated retinal vessels are also commonly observed due to decreased blood flow. Prompt evaluation and management are critical in CRAO to potentially restore some vision and prevent further ischemic damage to the retina.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions