A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign neoplasms that can present as painless, well-defined nodules usually located in the lower pole of the thyroid gland or in close proximity, such as the lateral aspect of the neck above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology of a parathyroid adenoma typically reveals polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm, often referred to as chief cells. This is key in differentiating it from other conditions mentioned in the question.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse recognizes that a patient is exhibiting symptoms associated with a TIA. After what period of time does the nurse determine these symptoms will subside?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a temporary disruption in blood supply to the brain. The symptoms of a TIA typically last for a short period of time, usually less than 1 hour. In some cases, the symptoms may last up to 24 hours but generally resolve within a shorter time frame. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the symptoms of a TIA promptly and assess the patient for appropriate management to prevent the risk of a full-blown stroke.

Question 3 of 9

Cultural competence is the process of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cultural competence is the process of acquiring specific knowledge, skills, and attitudes to effectively work with individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds. It involves understanding and respecting the values, beliefs, languages, and practices of different cultures in order to provide appropriate care and services. Cultural competence goes beyond just learning about different cultures; it requires the development of skills and attitudes that promote effective communication, understanding, and collaboration with individuals of diverse backgrounds. This includes being aware of one's own biases, being open-minded, and adapting practices to be inclusive and respectful of cultural differences. Ultimately, cultural competence is essential in providing high-quality, respectful, and effective care to clients from various cultural backgrounds.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is preparing to perform a continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) procedure for a patient following urological surgery. What action should the nurse prioritize to prevent complications during CBI?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize adjusting the irrigation flow rate based on the patient's urine output to prevent complications during continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Proper adjustment of the irrigation flow rate helps maintain adequate bladder drainage while preventing bladder distention, clot formation, and potential irrigation fluid overload. Monitoring the patient's urine output and adjusting the flow rate accordingly ensures optimal functioning of the CBI system and enhances patient safety. This proactive approach minimizes the risk of complications and promotes effective postoperative care following urological surgery.

Question 5 of 9

In the care of families, crisis intervention is an important part of _____.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Crisis intervention is an important part of secondary prevention in the care of families. Secondary prevention involves activities that aim to reduce the impact of a crisis or event that has already occurred. Crisis intervention provides immediate support and strategies to help families cope with and overcome a crisis situation. By addressing the crisis quickly and effectively, secondary prevention can help prevent further negative outcomes and promote the well-being of the family members.

Question 6 of 9

A patient asks the nurse several questions about their diagnosis and treatment options. What is the nurse's primary responsibility in responding to these questions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's primary responsibility in responding to a patient's questions about their diagnosis and treatment options is to listen actively and provide accurate, honest, and comprehensive answers. This approach helps build trust between the patient and the healthcare team, allows the patient to make informed decisions about their care, and ensures that the patient understands their condition and the recommended treatment plan. Providing vague answers or ignoring the patient's questions can lead to confusion, anxiety, and mistrust, which can hinder the patient's overall care and recovery. Referring the patient to the physician for all questions may be appropriate for certain medical inquiries, but the nurse plays a crucial role in educating and supporting the patient throughout their healthcare journey.

Question 7 of 9

Nurse Rona and her team has been utilizing the EEPIDEMIOLOGIC TRIAD model - identifying causative factors of diseases. Which of the following is not relevant this, model?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Epidemiologic Triad model focuses on identifying the causative factors of diseases, particularly infectious diseases. The three components of the triad are the external agent, the susceptible host, and the environment. These factors interact to result in the occurrence of disease. Treatment Regimen, on the other hand, is not one of the causative factors but rather a response to manage and treat the disease once it has occurred. While treatment is essential, it is not part of the factors that contribute to the initial development of the disease within the Epidemiologic Triad model.

Question 8 of 9

For a client having an episode of acute narrow-angle glaucoma, a nurse expects to give which of the following medications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acute narrow-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires timely intervention to reduce intraocular pressure. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a medication commonly used to treat this condition as it works as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye. By reducing the production of aqueous humor, acetazolamide helps decrease intraocular pressure rapidly, which is crucial in managing acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other options listed, such as Furosemide (Lasix), Atropine, and Urokinase (Abbokinase), are not typically used in the treatment of acute narrow-angle glaucoma.

Question 9 of 9

Patient Haydee comes to the perinatal unit of Hospital DEE. Nurse Arcee does through SCREENING assessment. Which is the Least screening assessment to be used by the nurse/

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Radiologic procedures are typically not used as the least screening assessment by nurses in a perinatal unit. The nurse's initial screening assessments usually focus on gathering information through techniques such as physical examination, interviews, and reviewing laboratory results. Radiologic procedures, such as X-rays or CT scans, are usually ordered by physicians once a more specific diagnostic need has been identified, based on the initial screening assessments performed by the nurse. Therefore, in this scenario, the least screening assessment to be used by the nurse would be radiologic procedures.

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