A patient presents with a pruritic rash with linear streaks and small, fluid-filled blisters. The patient reports recent exposure to poison ivy while gardening. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with a pruritic rash with linear streaks and small, fluid-filled blisters. The patient reports recent exposure to poison ivy while gardening. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of a pruritic rash with linear streaks and small, fluid-filled blisters following exposure to poison ivy is characteristic of allergic contact dermatitis. Poison ivy contains an oil called urushiol, which is known to cause this type of skin reaction in individuals who are sensitive to it. The linear streaks are often a result of the plant brushing against the skin. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition characterized by the formation of intraepidermal blisters, typically not associated with linear streaks or exposure to irritants like poison ivy. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by subepidermal blisters, and herpes zoster presents with a painful rash following reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in a dermatomal pattern, not typically in linear streaks.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a trip to sub-Saharan Africa is highly suggestive of malaria, which is caused by the Plasmodium species. Specifically, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination points towards Plasmodium falciparum as the most likely causative agent.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.

Question 4 of 9

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's MI?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) presenting with ST-segment elevation on ECG, the healthcare team should prioritize performing emergent coronary angiography for revascularization. This intervention, also known as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), involves opening up the blocked coronary artery responsible for the MI. Timely reperfusion of the affected artery is crucial in reducing myocardial damage and improving outcomes in acute MI patients. PCI is considered the preferred method for revascularization in patients with ST-segment elevation MI, as it has been shown to be more effective and associated with better outcomes compared to fibrinolytic therapy.

Question 5 of 9

In what way wil1 the nurse handles the situation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate way for the nurse to handle it would be to encourage the mother to keep calm because the health care team is doing their best to help Ramon recover. This response acknowledges the mother's concerns and reassures her that everything possible is being done for her son's well-being. It also helps to foster trust and rapport between the nurse, mother, and the healthcare team, which is important for effective communication and support during a challenging time. Promoting a sense of calm and trust in the healthcare professionals can help alleviate the mother's anxiety and stress, allowing her to focus on being a supportive presence for her son.

Question 6 of 9

A community clinic does primary care for patients. Most often the one who manages this is which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a community clinic providing primary care for patients, the most common healthcare professional who manages patient care is a physician. Physicians, also known as doctors, are trained and licensed to diagnose and treat a wide range of medical conditions. They are responsible for conducting exams, prescribing medications, ordering tests, and developing treatment plans for patients. While other healthcare professionals such as nurses, midwives, and barangay health workers also play important roles in providing care, physicians typically lead the team, make critical decisions, and provide overall management of patient care in a primary care setting like a community clinic.

Question 7 of 9

Charting are important documents that are used in court proceedings a Nurse Chona should take note that the following entry recorded would be MOST defensible in court?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Of the options provided, documenting objective, observable findings such as large bruises on the thigh upon assessment is the most defensible entry in court. This type of entry is based on the nurse's direct observation and assessment of the patient's physical condition, which can be corroborated by other healthcare providers or evidence. It provides clear, factual information without making assumptions or subjective judgments. In court, this type of documentation can help support the nurse's credibility and reliability as a witness.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse TEACH the patient's care giver regarding tracheostomy care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning the inner cannula daily helps prevent the accumulation of secretions and debris, which can lead to blockages and infections. It is an essential aspect of tracheostomy care to maintain the patency of the airway and prevent complications. Caregivers should be taught how to safely remove, clean, and reinsert the inner cannula as part of routine tracheostomy care.

Question 9 of 9

Which danger sign would warrant stoppage of pills?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: An elevation of blood pressure would warrant stoppage of pills. High blood pressure, or hypertension, in a 4-year-old child is abnormal and needs prompt medical attention. Giving pills without monitoring or stopping them if blood pressure is elevated can lead to serious health complications. It is important to address the underlying cause of high blood pressure in a child, which may require further evaluation and management by a healthcare provider.

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