ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presents with a pruritic, annular rash with fine scaling and central clearing, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports recent exposure to a new soap and laundry detergent. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of a pruritic, annular rash with fine scaling and central clearing, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities, following exposure to a new soap and laundry detergent is most consistent with tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm. Ringworm is a superficial fungal infection caused by dermatophytes that can present with circular or annular lesions with central clearing and scaling. The exposure to new soap and laundry detergent may have disrupted the skin's microbiome, making it more vulnerable to fungal infections like tinea corporis. Nummular eczema typically presents as coin-shaped plaques rather than annular lesions, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by smaller similar lesions in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Lichen planus would not typically be associated with exposure to new soap and laundry detergent but can have distinct purple, polygonal papules.
Question 2 of 5
As a newly 1icensed nurse employed in a tertiary hospital, you are required to attend Continuing Professional Development (CPD) program. When the training program is for the enrichment of nurses in the hospital, it is called __________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In-service training programs are specifically designed to provide continuing education and professional development for employees within a particular organization, in this case, a hospital. These programs are tailored to meet the needs of the staff and enhance their skills and knowledge within their work environment. Since the CPD program in the tertiary hospital is aimed at enriching and supporting the growth of the nurses' knowledge and expertise within the hospital setting, it falls under the category of an in-service training program.
Question 3 of 5
A woman in active labor is diagnosed with uterine rupture. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a woman diagnosed with uterine rupture during labor is to prepare for immediate cesarean section. Uterine rupture is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to severe maternal and fetal complications, including hemorrhage, fetal distress, and injury to both mother and baby. A cesarean section is necessary to deliver the baby promptly and address any potential complications, such as controlling bleeding and ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Time is critical in these situations, and prompt surgical intervention is essential to optimize outcomes. Administering intravenous oxytocin or assisting the mother into a hands-and-knees position would not address the immediate risks associated with uterine rupture. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is only necessary if the mother's condition deteriorates to the point of cardiac or respiratory arrest, which may occur as a result of significant hemorrhage or other complications associated with uterine
Question 4 of 5
The reasons for the nurse wishing to enhance his/her communication skill is to be able to establish Rapport, EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary goal of enhancing communication skills for a nurse is to establish rapport with patients, which can lead to better outcomes, increased patient satisfaction, and improved quality of care. Generating a threat between the nurse and the patient is counterproductive to building rapport and does not align with the intention of enhancing communication skills in healthcare settings.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed aspirin for secondary prevention. Which adverse effect is a potential concern with long-term aspirin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy, especially at higher doses, can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme, which is essential for the production of prostaglandins involved in mucosal protection of the gastrointestinal tract. Without these protective prostaglandins, the stomach lining becomes more susceptible to damage from gastric acid, leading to potential ulcer formation and bleeding. Patients with a history of coronary artery disease may be on aspirin for secondary prevention, and it is crucial to monitor for signs of bleeding such as black, tarry stools or abdominal pain. The benefits of aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events need to be weighed against the risk of adverse effects like gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients on long-term therapy.
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