A patient presents with a palpable thyroid nodule and signs of hypothyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals cystic degeneration and colloid-filled spaces. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with a palpable thyroid nodule and signs of hypothyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals cystic degeneration and colloid-filled spaces. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hashimoto's thyroiditis. This autoimmune disorder results in chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland, leading to thyroid nodules and hypothyroidism. The colloid-filled spaces seen in the biopsy are characteristic of Hashimoto's. Choice B: Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Choice C: Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the thyroid. Choice D: Thyroid nodules is a general term and does not explain the presence of colloid-filled spaces.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.

Question 3 of 5

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage renal disease is experiencing symptoms of depression. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing emotional support and offering counseling or therapy sessions address the root cause of the patient's depression in a holistic manner. This intervention allows the patient to express their emotions, process their feelings, and receive guidance on coping strategies. Encouraging social activities (A) may not directly address the underlying emotional issues. Referring to a psychiatrist for medication (B) should be considered if counseling alone is insufficient. Exploring spiritual beliefs (D) is important but may not be the most immediate priority for addressing depression in this context.

Question 4 of 5

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.

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