A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along

Question 2 of 9

A risk is any event that causes problems or benefits on the healthcare institution. The Medical Director knows that potential risks must be identified across the hospital in order to prevent the following, EXCEPT

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Incident reports are a crucial tool for capturing data on adverse events, near misses, and other incidents within a healthcare institution. These reports help in analyzing patterns, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing quality and safety measures. Therefore, incident reports themselves are not something that needs to be prevented; instead, they are a critical part of the risk management process to enhance patient safety and quality of care.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital with acute exacerbation and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. Which of the following ventilator settings is most appropriate for minimizing the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Patients with COPD are at increased risk for developing ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) due to their underlying lung pathology. Using a low tidal volume strategy (6-8 ml/kg predicted body weight) has been shown to reduce the risk of VILI in these patients. Additionally, applying high positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps to recruit collapsed alveoli, improve oxygenation, and decrease the risk of barotrauma by keeping the alveoli open throughout the respiratory cycle. Therefore, the most appropriate ventilator settings to minimize the risk of VILI in a COPD patient with acute exacerbation and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation would be low tidal volume and high PEEP.

Question 4 of 9

Which clinical manifestation should Nurse Rachel watch for patient Claire if she is suffering from hyperthyroidism?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces an excess amount of thyroid hormone. One of the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism is a fine motor tremor, which is characterized by hand tremors or shaky movements in the fingers. This tremor is often more noticeable when the individual is trying to perform delicate tasks requiring fine motor skills. It is important for Nurse Rachel to watch for this symptom in patient Claire as it can impact her ability to perform daily activities and may require intervention or management strategies to help alleviate the tremor and improve quality of life.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is preparing to assist with a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) procedure for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural safety?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize screening the patient for contraindications to MRI, such as metal implants or claustrophobia, to ensure procedural safety. Metallic objects can be hazardous in an MRI environment as they can be attracted to the magnet, potentially causing harm to the patient or staff. Claustrophobia can also be a significant issue for patients undergoing an MRI scan, and identifying this beforehand allows for appropriate measures to be taken to address the patient's anxiety or discomfort. Prioritizing this screening step helps ensure the safety and well-being of the patient during the MRI procedure.

Question 6 of 9

A postpartum client presents with calf pain, swelling, and warmth. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this scenario is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The client's presentation of calf pain, swelling, and warmth could be indicative of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. DVT is a blood clot that forms in a deep vein, often in the leg, and if left untreated, it can lead to life-threatening complications such as pulmonary embolism. Therefore, timely communication with the healthcare provider is critical to ensure that the client receives the appropriate diagnostic testing and treatment to address the potential DVT. Applying warm compresses, encouraging ambulation, or administering NSAIDs would not be the first-line interventions for a suspected DVT and may even worsen the condition.

Question 7 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is found to be closed. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. In the scenario described, the painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation with a closed cervix is classic for placenta previa. This condition is more common in the third trimester and can be diagnosed through ultrasound. It is important to manage placenta previa carefully to prevent complications such as severe bleeding, preterm birth, and maternal/fetal distress.

Question 8 of 9

When Nurse Sarah distributed a Patient satisfaction' survey form to be filled by the consumer upon discharge in a hospital setting is in compliance to what quality standards?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When Nurse Sarah distributed a Patient satisfaction survey form to be filled by the consumer upon discharge in a hospital setting, it aligns with the quality standard of identifying Patient rights and welfare. Patient satisfaction surveys aim to gather feedback from patients about their experiences with the health care services provided. By distributing such surveys, the hospital is demonstrating its commitment to ensuring the rights and welfare of patients by seeking their feedback, understanding their concerns, and incorporating their suggestions for improvement. This initiative helps in enhancing the quality of care provided to patients and ultimately contributes to improving overall patient outcomes and satisfaction.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.

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