A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is a common complication associated with hip fracture in elderly patients?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head, also known as osteonecrosis, is a common complication associated with hip fractures in elderly patients. It occurs when there is a loss of blood supply to the femoral head following the fracture, leading to bone tissue death. This can result in pain, limitation of motion, and potentially the collapse of the femoral head, causing further complications. Timely diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in order to prevent further degeneration of the hip joint. Other complications such as compartment syndrome, dislocation of the hip prosthesis, and Volkmann's contracture are not typically associated with hip fractures in elderly patients.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Colposcopy with biopsy is the most appropriate diagnostic test for evaluating a woman with suspected cervical dysplasia. Colposcopy is a procedure in which a special magnifying instrument called a colposcope is used to examine the cervix for any abnormal areas. If abnormal tissue is identified during colposcopy, a biopsy will be taken to confirm the presence of cervical dysplasia and determine the severity. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Pap smear, although a screening test for cervical dysplasia, may not provide a definitive diagnosis and may require further evaluation with colposcopy and biopsy. Endometrial biopsy and transvaginal ultrasound are not indicated for evaluating cervical dysplasia specifically.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and anxiety, opioid medications are often prioritized by palliative care providers for symptom management. Opioids are effective in relieving dyspnea by acting as respiratory depressants and reducing the feeling of air hunger. Additionally, opioids have sedative effects that can help alleviate anxiety and promote relaxation. Therefore, in this situation, prescribing opioid medications would be the most appropriate intervention to address both the dyspnea and anxiety symptoms simultaneously. Oxygen therapy, relaxation techniques, and breathing exercises may also be useful adjunctive interventions, but opioid medications are typically prioritized for immediate symptom relief in this context.

Question 6 of 9

It is 10 o'clock of your watch. The client asks, "What time is it?" The nurse's appropriate response is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's appropriate response is to provide the requested information clearly and directly. In this case, the client asked for the time, so the best response is to say "It is 10 o'clock" to answer their question promptly. Options A, C, and D do not address the client's question and may be perceived as dismissive or unhelpful.

Question 7 of 9

Nurse bea wants to pursue higher education in Nursing for her career advancement. Aside from enrolling in graduate school, which of the following she could enhance her career?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Participating in professional organizations can provide Nurse Bea with numerous opportunities to network with other professionals in the field, stay updated with the latest trends and developments in nursing, access resources for professional growth, and even participate in leadership roles within the organization. Being active in a professional organization can help Nurse Bea build her professional profile, gain recognition, and open up possibilities for career advancement and opportunities for collaboration and learning from peers. It can also help her stay connected with the broader nursing community and enhance her visibility within the field. Engaging with a professional organization is a valuable way for Nurse Bea to enhance her career alongside pursuing further education.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a suspected heat cramp?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Providing oral rehydration with electrolyte solutions is the appropriate action for managing a conscious patient with suspected heat cramps. Heat cramps are muscle pains or spasms that often occur during intense exercise in hot environments when a person sweats excessively, losing both fluids and electrolytes. Replenishing lost fluids and electrolytes through oral rehydration helps address the underlying cause of the cramps and provides relief to the patient. Massaging the affected muscles vigorously can potentially worsen the condition, applying cold packs is not usually recommended for heat-related conditions, and encouraging the patient to continue strenuous activity can lead to further complications.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital with acute exacerbation and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. Which of the following ventilator settings is most appropriate for minimizing the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Patients with COPD are at increased risk for developing ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) due to their underlying lung pathology. Using a low tidal volume strategy (6-8 ml/kg predicted body weight) has been shown to reduce the risk of VILI in these patients. Additionally, applying high positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps to recruit collapsed alveoli, improve oxygenation, and decrease the risk of barotrauma by keeping the alveoli open throughout the respiratory cycle. Therefore, the most appropriate ventilator settings to minimize the risk of VILI in a COPD patient with acute exacerbation and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation would be low tidal volume and high PEEP.

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