A patient presents with a history of diarrhea of several weeks' duration. Which of the following may be the cause?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia enterocolitica. Y. enterocolitica is known to cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea in humans. It is often associated with contaminated food or water. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, not diarrhea. Corynebacterium diphtheria causes respiratory diphtheria. Neisseria meningitidis is associated with meningitis and septicemia, not diarrhea. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and history, Y. enterocolitica is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sepsis is a systemic response to infection resulting in organ dysfunction. A: Sepsis can be caused by bacterial infection, but it is not solely defined by the presence of bacteria in the blood. B: Bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the blood, which can be a component of sepsis, but sepsis involves a broader systemic response beyond just bacteremia. C: Sepsis can lead to the release of toxins and organ failure, but sepsis itself is not defined solely by the massive proliferation of toxins. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as sepsis can involve the presence of bacteria, bacteremia, systemic manifestations, and organ failure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Incorrect - The complement system is not directly involved in the viral neutralization reaction. B: Correct - Specific antibodies neutralize viruses by blocking their ability to infect cells. C: Incorrect - Antibodies are titrated, but only one serum sample is required for neutralization testing. D: Incorrect - Viral neutralization is primarily used to measure antibody response, not to identify newly isolated viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Norwalk Virus. The Norwalk Virus belongs to the family Caliciviridae because it has characteristic features such as a nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA genome. The other options, Yellow fever virus, Rubella virus, and CMV, belong to different virus families and have distinct characteristics that differentiate them from Caliciviridae. Yellow fever virus is a Flavivirus, Rubella virus belongs to Togaviridae, and CMV is a member of the Herpesviridae family. Therefore, based on the genomic and structural characteristics of the Norwalk Virus, it is the correct choice for belonging to the Caliciviridae family.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: phialospores. Phialospores are conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell called a phialide. This structure is characteristic of fungi in the genus Penicillium. Arthrospores (A) are formed by the fragmentation of hyphae, porospores (B) are not a recognized term in mycology, and blastospores (D) are produced by budding from yeast cells. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the specific description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why C is correct: 1. Immunomodulators regulate the immune response. 2. Gamma-interferon is a cytokine that enhances immune function. 3. It helps fight infections and regulate inflammation. 4. Pentaxim and Hexacima are combination vaccines. 5. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. Summary: - A and B are combination vaccines. - D is an antibiotic. - C is the correct answer as gamma-interferon is an immunomodulator that regulates the immune response.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia enterocolitica. Y. enterocolitica is known to cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea in humans. It is often associated with contaminated food or water. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, not diarrhea. Corynebacterium diphtheria causes respiratory diphtheria. Neisseria meningitidis is associated with meningitis and septicemia, not diarrhea. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and history, Y. enterocolitica is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of a capsule points to S. pneumoniae as it has a polysaccharide capsule. 3. S. pneumoniae commonly causes sore throat. 4. Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are not typically associated with sore throat.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.