ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents with a history of diarrhea of several weeks duration. Which of the following may be the cause?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: - Yersinia enterocolitica is a common cause of diarrhea due to contaminated food or water. - It typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. - The other choices are unlikely causes of prolonged diarrhea, as Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis, and Corynebacterium diphtheria causes diphtheria.
Question 2 of 9
The pertussis toxin:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pertussis toxin inhibits the adenylate cyclase-mediated conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP, leading to decreased levels of cyclic AMP in the cell. This disrupts important cellular signaling pathways, affecting immune response and causing symptoms of pertussis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the pertussis toxin does not directly affect protein synthesis, provoke overproduction of mucus in tracheal cells, or provoke release of electrolytes.
Question 3 of 9
Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.
Question 4 of 9
Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following cell organelles contain digestive enzymes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: peroxisomes. Peroxisomes contain enzymes involved in breaking down fatty acids and detoxifying harmful substances. They do not contain digestive enzymes. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes involved in breaking down waste materials. Chloroplasts are involved in photosynthesis and do not contain digestive enzymes. Mitochondria are involved in energy production and do not contain digestive enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is peroxisomes.
Question 6 of 9
In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) adheres to the intestinal wall using bundle-forming pili. 2. EPEC produces toxins that disrupt cell structure and function, leading to diarrhea. 3. Shigella spp. invade intestinal cells, Salmonella spp. invade and multiply within cells, and Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing profuse watery diarrhea. Summary: A, C, and D choices are incorrect because they do not specifically adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins like EPEC does.
Question 7 of 9
For shigella is true:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Shigella is a nonmotile bacterium. 2. This lack of motility is a key characteristic used to differentiate it from other enteric bacteria. 3. Nonmotile nature of Shigella helps it to cause infections by invading the intestinal epithelial cells. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct as Shigella is indeed nonmotile. Summary: A: Incorrect - Shigella does not produce hydrogen sulfide. B: Incorrect - Shigella does not ferment lactose. D: Incorrect - Shigella is not mannitol positive.
Question 8 of 9
What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria produce urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is known for producing urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid. 2. Urease enzyme converts urea into ammonia, buffering the acidic pH. 3. This adaptation allows H. pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Shigella flexneri do not produce urease. 5. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the unique urease-producing capability of H. pylori.