ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Increased ability to excrete drugs. Rationale: 1. Renal insufficiency impairs kidney function, leading to decreased excretion of drugs. 2. In elderly patients with renal insufficiency, there may be compensatory mechanisms to enhance drug excretion. 3. This increased ability to excrete drugs helps prevent drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Summary: A: Increased GFR is not expected in renal insufficiency; it typically decreases. B: Serum creatinine level would likely be elevated in renal insufficiency, not normal. D: Hypokalemia is not a typical lab finding in renal insufficiency; hyperkalemia is more common.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is receiving hydrocortisone sodium succinate for adrenal crisis. What other medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A proton pump inhibitor. When a patient is receiving hydrocortisone for adrenal crisis, it can lead to increased gastric acid secretion. A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce acid production and prevents gastric ulcers. Regular insulin (A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Canagliflozin (C) is a medication used for diabetes management and is not relevant here. Propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and may mask signs of hypoglycemia when used with insulin, which is not suitable in this case.
Question 4 of 9
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: inform the provider of probable visceral perforation. This is the most urgent action as sudden abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature in a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis could indicate a serious complication like visceral perforation, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Assessing peritoneal dialysate return (A) may provide some information but does not address the urgent need to address a potential visceral perforation. Checking the patient's blood sugar (B) and evaluating the patient's neurological status (C) are not priorities in this situation and do not address the potential life-threatening complication of visceral perforation.
Question 6 of 9
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with long-standing type 1 diabetes presents to the emergency department with a loss of consciousness and seizure activity. The patient has a history of renal insufficiency, gastroparesis, and peripheral diabetic neuropathy. Emergency personnel reported a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL on scene. When providing discharge teaching for this patient and family, the nurse instructs on the need to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate orally for severe episodes of hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing severe hypoglycemia (blood glucose of 32 mg/dL) leading to loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Administering 15 grams of carbohydrate orally is crucial to rapidly raise the blood glucose levels and address the hypoglycemia. This immediate intervention can help reverse the symptoms and prevent further complications. The incorrect choices: A: Administering glucagon intramuscularly is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. In this case, oral intake is preferred for faster absorption. C: Discontinuing the insulin pump is not necessary in this situation since the primary concern is treating the acute hypoglycemia. Removing the infusion set can lead to hyperglycemia if not managed properly. D: Increasing home blood glucose monitoring and reporting patterns of hyp
Question 8 of 9
The removal of plasma water and some low–molecular weight particles by using a pressure or osmotic gradient is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: ultrafiltration. Ultrafiltration involves the removal of plasma water and low-molecular weight particles using a pressure or osmotic gradient. This process allows small molecules to pass through a semipermeable membrane while retaining larger molecules. Dialysis (A) involves the removal of waste products and excess fluids from the blood, while diffusion (B) is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration. Clearance (C) refers to the rate at which a substance is removed from the blood by a specific organ or process. Ultrafiltration specifically targets the removal of plasma water and low-molecular weight particles through a pressure or osmotic gradient, making it the correct choice in this context.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.