ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient presents to the ED complaining of a sudden onset of incapacitating vertigo, with nausea and vomiting and tinnitus. The patient mentions to the nurse that she suddenly cannot hear very well. What would the nurse suspect the patients diagnosis will be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Labyrinthitis. This condition presents with sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and hearing loss, which are all symptoms described by the patient. Labyrinthitis is commonly caused by a viral infection affecting the inner ear, leading to inflammation of the labyrinth. This inflammation disrupts the balance and hearing functions of the inner ear, resulting in the symptoms mentioned. A: Ossiculitis involves inflammation of the middle ear bones, typically causing conductive hearing loss, not the sudden onset of vertigo and other symptoms described. B: Mnire's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it typically does not present with sudden onset incapacitating vertigo. C: Ototoxicity is caused by exposure to certain medications or chemicals that damage the inner ear structures, leading to hearing loss. While hearing loss is a symptom, the sudden onset of vertigo is not typically associated with ototoxicity.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is having at least 75% of nutritional needs met by enteral feeding, so the health care provider has ordered the parenteral nutrition (PN) to be discontinued. However, the nurse notices that the PN infusion has fallen behind. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Taper infusion gradually): 1. Tapering the infusion gradually allows for a smooth transition off PN without causing metabolic disturbances. 2. Abruptly stopping PN can lead to hypoglycemia and electrolyte imbalances. 3. Increasing the rate may cause fluid overload or hyperglycemia. 4. Hanging 5% dextrose alone does not provide adequate nutrition and may not meet the patient's needs.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 4 of 9
Which findings should the nurse follow up on afterremoval of a catheter from a patient? (Select allthat apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dribbling of urine. This finding should be followed up on after catheter removal because it may indicate urinary retention or incomplete bladder emptying, which can lead to complications such as urinary tract infection. A: Increasing fluid intake is important for overall hydration but is not a specific finding that requires follow-up after catheter removal. C: Voiding in small amounts may be a normal response initially after catheter removal and does not necessarily indicate a problem. D: Voiding within 6 hours of catheter removal is a positive sign of bladder function recovery and does not require immediate follow-up.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has just arrived to the floor after an enucleation procedure following a workplace accident in which his left eye was irreparably damaged. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize during the patients immediate postoperative recovery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing and addressing the patient's emotional needs. This should be prioritized because the patient has undergone a traumatic experience losing their eye due to a workplace accident. Emotions such as fear, anxiety, and grief are common postoperatively. Addressing these emotional needs is crucial for the patient's overall well-being and recovery. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but not the priority in this situation. Teaching about eye prostheses, depth perception, and medication regimen can be addressed once the patient's emotional needs are stabilized.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about the urinarysystem. In which order will the nurse present the structures, following the flow of urine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is B: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra. 1. Kidneys filter blood and produce urine. 2. Ureters transport urine from kidneys to bladder. 3. Bladder stores urine until expelled. 4. Urethra carries urine from bladder out of the body. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the anatomical flow of urine through the urinary system.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse who sits on the hospitals ethics committee is reviewing a complex case that has many of the hallmarks of assisted suicide. Which of the following would be an example of assisted suicide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because administering a lethal dose of medication to a patient whose death is imminent directly causes the patient's death, constituting assisted suicide. This action is intentional and aims to end the patient's life. In contrast, choices B, C, and D do not involve intentionally causing the patient's death. Choice B involves a medication error but not with the intent to end the patient's life. Choice C respects the patient's autonomy in refusing treatment. Choice D honors the patient's wishes for end-of-life care. Thus, only choice A aligns with the definition of assisted suicide.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is sitting at the patient’s bedside takinga nursing history. Which zone of personal space is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse sitting at the patient's bedside is using the personal zone of personal space, which ranges from 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows for a close interaction suitable for taking a nursing history while maintaining a professional yet personal connection. The socio-consultative zone (A) is 4-12 feet, more appropriate for professional interactions. The intimate zone (C) is 0-18 inches, too close for an initial nursing history. The public zone (D) is 12 feet or more, too distant for a personal conversation.