A patient presented with gas gangrene. Gram-positive rods producing spores and gas were isolated from a wound sample. Identify the microorganism.

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Question 1 of 9

A patient presented with gas gangrene. Gram-positive rods producing spores and gas were isolated from a wound sample. Identify the microorganism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene and is a Gram-positive rod that produces spores and gas in tissue infections. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not gas gangrene. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci and does not produce spores or gas in the context of gas gangrene. Therefore, based on the characteristics of the microorganism isolated from the wound sample, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Question 2 of 9

Rotaviruses:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the NSP4 nonstructural protein of rotaviruses indeed acts in a toxic-like manner by disrupting calcium homeostasis, leading to diarrhea. Choice B is incorrect as rotaviruses can cause significant disease in infants, but not typically in adults. Choice C is incorrect as rotaviruses are resistant to stomach acid. Choice D is incorrect as rotaviruses cause a net secretion of water and loss of ions, contributing to diarrhea.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presented with gas gangrene. Gram-positive rods producing spores and gas were isolated from a wound sample. Identify the microorganism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene and is a Gram-positive rod that produces spores and gas in tissue infections. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not gas gangrene. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci and does not produce spores or gas in the context of gas gangrene. Therefore, based on the characteristics of the microorganism isolated from the wound sample, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following does NOT refer to viruses

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viruses are sensitive to interferon, a natural defense mechanism of the body against viral infections. Interferon helps to inhibit viral replication. A: Viruses are cell-free infectious particles, not living systems. B: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites as they require host cells to replicate. C: Viruses can have either DNA or RNA as genetic material, which is a characteristic feature.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because there is specific prophylaxis available for influenza, such as the flu vaccine. Choice A is incorrect as influenza viruses are not spherical, they are typically pleomorphic. Choice B is incorrect because hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are indeed antigenically variable, contributing to the need for annual flu vaccines. Choice C is incorrect as the susceptibility of the population to influenza viruses can vary depending on factors such as immunity and vaccination status.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the statements is false:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because spirochaetes are not bacilli; they are spiral-shaped bacteria. Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria, making statement A false. Statement B is true as diplococci are spherical bacteria occurring in pairs. Statement C is true as rod-shaped bacteria have one diameter longer than the other. Statement D is true as coccobacilli are short, oval-shaped bacteria resembling cocci and rods. In summary, spirochaetes are spiral-shaped, not bacilli, making statement A false.

Question 8 of 9

A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because the presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite that causes amoebic dysentery. Entamoeba histolytica cysts contain four nuclei, distinguishing them from other pathogens. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis are not associated with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan that does not typically form cysts with multiple nuclei. In summary, the unique feature of four nuclei in the cysts points towards Entamoeba histolytica as the most likely causative agent of the diarrhea in this patient.

Question 9 of 9

Mycoplasma species lack:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall. Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, making them unique among bacteria. This is because they have a flexible cell membrane that provides structural support instead of a rigid cell wall. The absence of a cell wall allows them to be pleomorphic and gives them resistance to certain antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis. Plasma membrane (B), DNA (C), and ribosomes (D) are present in Mycoplasma species, so they are not the correct answer.

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