ATI RN
microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient presented with fever, malaise, and an ulcerated lesion. A Gram stain of the lesion revealed large, Gram-positive rods. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.
Question 2 of 5
A puncture sample has been taken from the inguinal lymph nodes of a patient provisionally diagnosed with plague. The sample was inoculated into a hard nutrient medium. What shape will the colonies have, if the diagnosis is confirmed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shagreen leather. Yersinia pestis, the bacterium causing plague, forms colonies resembling shagreen leather on a hard nutrient medium due to its distinctive morphology. This morphology includes a rough, irregular, and raised appearance, similar to the texture of shagreen leather. A: Dewdrops - Incorrect. Dewdrops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. C: Lace handkerchief - Incorrect. Lace handkerchief does not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. D: Mercury drops - Incorrect. Mercury drops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis.
Question 3 of 5
What drug should be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Doxycycline. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those causing infections like Lyme disease and pneumonia. Doxycycline is often the first-line treatment for these infections due to its efficacy and low risk of resistance. Chloramphenicol (B) has serious side effects and is reserved for specific cases. Penicillin (C) is not effective against all bacteria and may not cover the specific infection. Streptomycin (D) is mainly used for certain types of bacterial infections and is not the optimal choice for the conditions mentioned in the question.
Question 4 of 5
What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.