ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient preparing for surgery has moderate anxiety and is unable to understand preoperative information. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because presenting information in a calm manner using simple language helps the patient with moderate anxiety better understand preoperative information. This approach acknowledges the patient's anxiety and promotes effective communication. Choice A is incorrect because it addresses postoperative care rather than preoperative information. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on recovery rather than addressing the patient's anxiety and understanding of preoperative information. Choice D is incorrect because it encourages expression of feelings rather than directly addressing the patient's understanding of preoperative information.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client diagnosed with depression and notes that the client has been prescribed mirtazapine. The nurse interprets this information, identifying this agent as which type?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Alpha-2 antagonist. Mirtazapine is classified as a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA), which acts as an alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist. This mechanism of action increases the release of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain, leading to its antidepressant effects. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, cyclic antidepressants primarily inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, and norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitors (NDRIs) inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. Thus, choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching an in-service education class about caring for homeless populations. When explaining the difference between the care provided by Safe Havens and Shelter Plus Care, which of the following would the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Shelter Plus Care offers both supportive services and long-term housing, which is crucial for homeless populations to achieve stability and independence. Safe Havens, on the other hand, primarily focus on providing immediate shelter and support services but not long-term housing. A is incorrect because Safe Havens actually offer more intensive services to a smaller population. B is incorrect because Safe Havens typically have a smaller capacity than 100 people. C is incorrect because Safe Havens do not typically provide long-term housing, only short-term shelter.
Question 4 of 9
A group of nursing students is preparing a class presentation comparing the different types of cognitive therapies. When describing solution-focused brief therapy, which of the following would the students identify as being different from the other therapies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Solution-focused brief therapy differs from other cognitive therapies by focusing on the functional aspects of the patient rather than solely on problems. This approach emphasizes strengths and solutions, aiming to help clients identify and build on their existing resources to achieve their goals. By focusing on the positive and functional aspects, solution-focused brief therapy promotes a forward-looking and goal-oriented approach. In contrast, other therapies may focus more on challenging the existence of problems (choice B), recognizing change as constant (choice C), or delving into past experiences (choice D).
Question 5 of 9
A female nurse had been sexually assaulted as a teenager. She finds it difficult to work with patients who have undergone the same trauma. What is the most helpful response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Discussing these feelings with a mental health professional. This option is the most helpful response because it addresses the nurse's emotional distress and offers professional support to help her process and cope with her trauma. By seeking help from a mental health professional, the nurse can work through her feelings and develop strategies to handle her difficulties working with trauma patients. A: Discussing with the nurse supervisor may provide some support, but a mental health professional is better equipped to address the nurse's emotional needs. B: Requesting patient assignment changes may avoid the issue temporarily, but it does not address the root cause of the nurse's distress. D: While important, accepting her role in providing unbiased care does not directly address the nurse's emotional struggles and may not be sufficient in helping her cope with her trauma-related difficulties.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse wants to find a description of diagnostic criteria for anxiety disorders. Which resource would have the most complete information?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: DSM-V. The DSM-V (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition) is the standard classification of mental disorders used by healthcare professionals, including nurses. It provides detailed diagnostic criteria for various mental health conditions, including anxiety disorders. The DSM-V is considered the most comprehensive and up-to-date resource for diagnosing mental health disorders. Incorrect Choices: A: Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC) focuses on outcomes rather than diagnostic criteria for mental disorders. C: The ANA's Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Scope and Standards of Practice outlines the scope of practice for psychiatric-mental health nurses but does not provide diagnostic criteria. D: ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision) is primarily used for coding and billing purposes and does not offer detailed diagnostic criteria for mental health disorders like anxiety disorders.
Question 7 of 9
A 4-year-old child is unable to consider another child's ideas about playing house. This situation is an example of which concept of Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Egocentrism. At the preoperational stage (2-7 years) in Piaget's theory, children struggle with understanding others' perspectives, known as egocentrism. In this case, the 4-year-old child's inability to consider another child's ideas about playing house reflects egocentrism. The child is only able to see things from their own point of view and struggles to understand that others may have different thoughts or viewpoints. This lack of perspective-taking is a key characteristic of egocentrism at this stage of cognitive development. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Object permanence - This concept is related to the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not seen. It is typically developed in the sensorimotor stage (0-2 years), not in the preoperational stage where the child in the question falls. B: Reversibility and spatiality - Reversibility
Question 8 of 9
Nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight bearing exercises. Weight bearing exercises help to strengthen bones, which is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. By engaging in weight bearing exercises, such as walking or lifting weights, the client can improve bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. Avoid crossing the legs beyond the midline (B) is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods (C) is important for preventing pressure sores but not specifically related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area (D) may be used in certain cases for support but does not address the primary preventive measure of strengthening bones through weight bearing exercises.
Question 9 of 9
What is a true statement about NCLEX drag-and-drop test items?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because NCLEX drag-and-drop test items typically show a split computer screen where candidates can drag and drop items into different categories or sequences. This format allows for interactive and hands-on assessment of the test taker's understanding and application of concepts. This feature helps simulate real-world scenarios and test critical thinking skills. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: They can use every answer option if designed to do so. B: They can test prioritization by requiring candidates to organize information or actions in a specific order. D: They do not make up 50 percent of test items; the percentage varies, and they are just one of the item types used in the NCLEX exam.