ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient on diuretic therapy calls the clinic because he™s had the flu, with terrible vomiting and
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement by the nurse is, "It™s important to try to stay on your prescribed medication. Try to take it with sips of water." It is important to continue taking diuretic therapy as prescribed, even if the patient has been vomiting. Taking the medication with small sips of water can help ensure hydration and absorption of the medication. Discontinuing the diuretic abruptly can lead to fluid retention and exacerbation of the patient's condition. It's best to ensure proper hydration and medication adherence while also seeking proper medical advice if needed.
Question 2 of 5
A client with diabetes is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin lowers blood glucose by reducing hepatic production and improving insulin sensitivity, best taken with meals to minimize GI upset (e.g., nausea), a common side effect, while aligning with food intake for glycemic control. Reporting muscle pain relates to rare lactic acidosis, not a primary instruction unless symptomatic. Avoiding carbohydrates is incorrect'diabetes management balances carbs, not eliminates them. Bedtime-only dosing ignores twice-daily norms. Taking it with meals enhances tolerance and efficacy, critical for adherence in type 2 diabetes, where metformin is first-line. This instruction reflects its pharmacokinetics and practical use, making A the key teaching point.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain. Physical exam reveals rebound tenderness and decreased bowel sounds. An emergent appendectomy is performed. Postsurgically, he is given an NSAID along with morphine for pain control. Which of the following NSAIDs is commonly used as an adjunct to opioids postsurgically?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Post-appendectomy pain management often combines opioids like morphine with NSAIDs for synergy. Acetaminophen is an analgesic but not a true NSAID (lacks significant anti-inflammatory action). Celecoxib , a COX-2 inhibitor, is less common acutely due to cost and milder effect. Ibuprofen is effective but less potent parenterally. Ketorolac , a potent NSAID, is widely used postsurgically-available IV/IM, it reduces inflammation and pain, complementing morphine's central action. Naproxen (E) is oral, less ideal acutely. Ketorolac's rapid onset and efficacy in reducing opioid requirements make it standard. Its short-term use minimizes GI risks, aligning with surgical protocols, distinguishing it from other options for acute postoperative pain control.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is receiving TPN at home. The visiting nurse assists the family with the care plan, which includes changing the TPN solution and tubing. What is the recommended initial frequency for changing the tubing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection and maintain sterility. Longer intervals (B, C, D) increase the risk of bacterial contamination and sepsis.
Question 5 of 5
The older adult client has gastrointestinal bleeding. The client says to the nurse, 'I don't understand this. All I did was take ibuprofen (Advil) for my arthritis.' Which plan would be best as it relates to the nurse's education of this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding by irritating the stomach lining, a risk higher in older adults. Substituting acetaminophen, which lacks this effect, reduces harm while managing pain, making it the best education plan. Topical drugs may not address systemic arthritis. Physician approval is wise but less specific than substitution. Pros/cons of ibuprofen inform but don't directly mitigate risk. Acetaminophen offers a safer alternative, directly addressing the bleeding issue.