A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can it be?

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Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can it be?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) and matches the description given in the question. Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative rod-like bacterium that forms greenish mucoid colonies with a specific smell due to its production of urease enzyme. This enzyme leads to the formation of struvite crystals, which can cause painful and frequent urination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) is not typically associated with UTIs. E.coli (C) is the most common cause of UTIs but does not match the specific description provided. Str.pyogenes (D) is a gram-positive bacterium and is not typically associated with UTIs.

Question 2 of 9

The causative agent of the disease gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium, which matches the description provided. It is motile and peritrichous (having flagella all over the surface) without a capsule. This bacterium is known to cause gas gangrene due to its ability to produce toxins that destroy tissue. Choice A is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it does not have a capsule. Choice B is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is not motile and does not have flagella all over its surface. Choice D is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it is motile without a capsule.

Question 3 of 9

By precipitation of tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) is obtained. It is used in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to screen for tuberculosis by injecting PPD intradermally. The presence of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction indicates prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The Schick test (B) is used to test for immunity to diphtheria, while the Dick test (C) is used to test for immunity to scarlet fever. Therefore, the correct use of PPD is in the Mantoux test for tuberculosis screening.

Question 4 of 9

Microscopy of a wound abscess revealed Gram-negative rods producing blue-green pigment with a distinctive odor of jasmine. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which gives the characteristic color seen in the wound abscess. The distinctive odor of jasmine is also a key feature of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Proteus vulgaris (B) and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) do not produce blue-green pigment or have a jasmine-like odor. Escherichia coli (C) typically does not produce blue-green pigment or have a jasmine-like odor.

Question 5 of 9

After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Co-trimoxazole. This drug combination is the first-line treatment for toxoplasmosis due to its efficacy against Toxoplasma gondii. Co-trimoxazole consists of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work synergistically to inhibit bacterial and protozoal folate synthesis, effectively treating toxoplasmosis. B: Itraconazole is an antifungal medication and not effective against toxoplasmosis. C: Mebendazole is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not toxoplasmosis. D: Azidothimidine, also known as AZT, is used for treating HIV, not toxoplasmosis.

Question 6 of 9

All of the statements about Rotaviruses are correct EXCEPT

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Rotaviruses are not a major cause of meningitis; they primarily cause gastroenteritis. This is because Rotaviruses infect the gastrointestinal tract, not the central nervous system. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific antiviral therapy for Rotaviruses. Choice B is correct as Rotaviruses are indeed widespread globally. Choice D is correct as Rotaviruses are shed in large amounts in feces, contributing to their ability to spread easily.

Question 7 of 9

A 34 year old male patient consulted a doctor about face carbuncle. Objectively: a loose, painless edema of hypodermic tissue; black crust in the center of carbuncle, vesicular rash around it. Microbiological examination revealed static streptobacilli capable of capsule building. What microorganisms are the causative agents of this disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is a common causative agent of skin infections like carbuncles. Staphylococcus aureus is known for its ability to produce pus-filled abscesses, which aligns with the symptoms described in the question. The presence of a vesicular rash around the carbuncle further supports this diagnosis, as Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin lesions. The other choices are not correct because: A: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, which presents with different symptoms such as fever, malaise, and respiratory symptoms. C: Bacillus subtilis is a harmless soil bacterium commonly used in research and not known to cause skin infections. D: Bacillus anthracoides is not a known pathogen and is not associated with human infections.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following statements about in vitro cultivation of viruses is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because viruses can indeed be cultured on hen embryos, cell cultures, and experimental animals in vitro. This method allows for the replication and study of viruses outside the host organism. Option A is incorrect as viral cultivation is possible in laboratory settings. Option C is incorrect because while viruses can be grown on nutrient media, it is not the only method. Option D is incorrect as viruses can be cultured in various types of cell cultures, not just human embryonic ones.

Question 9 of 9

The virus most commonly transmitted during pregnancy is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: cytomegalovirus. CMV is the most common virus transmitted during pregnancy, leading to potential serious complications for the fetus. It can cause birth defects, hearing loss, and developmental delays. CMV is commonly spread through bodily fluids. HIV (B) can also be transmitted during pregnancy but is less common. Herpes simplex virus (C) can be transmitted but typically results in localized infection. Epstein-Barr virus (D) is not commonly transmitted during pregnancy.

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