A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: decimal reduction time. This term represents the time required at a specific temperature to kill 90% of a bacterial population. It is a key parameter in microbiology to determine the effectiveness of a given heat treatment. Generation time (A) refers to the time it takes for a population to double in size. Thermal death time (B) is the shortest time needed to kill all organisms at a specific temperature. Sterilization time (C) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the time required to kill 90% of the population.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The CDC is a U.S. government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety. The correct answer is the only choice that accurately reflects the agency's purpose. Choice B (Children's Disease Center) is incorrect because the CDC's scope is not limited to children's health. Choice C (Central Disaster Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC primarily focuses on disease prevention. Choice D (Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC's main focus is not on drug evaluation. Thus, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the CDC's mission and responsibilities.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the symptoms mentioned (short period of depression, nausea, restlessness) can be early signs of rabies. Rabies typically presents with a variety of non-specific symptoms in the early stages, including behavioral changes such as depression and restlessness, as well as gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea. Therefore, it is important to consider the combination of these symptoms collectively rather than individually when suspecting rabies. Choices A, B, and C alone may not definitively indicate rabies, but when seen together, they should raise suspicion and prompt further evaluation and testing for rabies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: peptidoglycan and calcium dipicolinate. Bacterial endospores are resistant structures formed by certain bacterial species under unfavorable conditions. Peptidoglycan provides structural support, while calcium dipicolinate aids in heat resistance. Lipid bilayers (choice A) are not a primary component. Capsular polysaccharides (choice C) are part of the bacterial capsule, not the endospore. Teichoic acid (choice D) is a component of the cell wall, not the endospore.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: HIV. HIV is transmitted through direct contact with certain body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This direct contact route of transmission makes it different from the other choices. Salmonellosis is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water (not direct contact). Tularemia is usually transmitted through insect bites or contact with infected animals. Rubella is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. Therefore, HIV is the only option with a contact route of transmission.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxacillin. In AST for Gram-positive bacteria, the antibiotic panel typically includes oxacillin to determine if the bacterium is susceptible or resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. Oxacillin is commonly used to test for methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus. Tetracycline (B), Tobramycin (C), and Amikacin (D) are not typically included in the Gram-positive antibiotic panel. Tetracycline is more commonly used for Gram-negative bacteria, while Tobramycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides usually tested in Gram-negative bacterial infections. Therefore, they are not appropriate choices for the Gram-positive antibiotic panel.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Propionibacterium shermanii. This bacterium is used in the production of certain types of cheese, such as Swiss cheese, to create the characteristic holes and flavor. Propionibacterium produces carbon dioxide gas during fermentation, forming the holes in the cheese. Acetobacter aceti (B) is used in vinegar production. Giardia (C) is a parasite that causes gastrointestinal issues, not used in cheese production. Fusobacterium (D) is a type of bacteria associated with infections in humans, not used in cheese production.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Icosahedral structures. Icosahedral symmetry is commonly found in viruses due to its efficient way of packing genetic material. The icosahedron has 20 equilateral triangular faces, making it ideal for viral capsids. The other choices, B: Hexahedral, C: Tetrahedral, and D: Dodecahedral structures, do not accurately describe the cubic type of symmetry seen in viruses. Hexahedral refers to a six-faced polyhedron, tetrahedral to a four-faced polyhedron, and dodecahedral to a twelve-faced polyhedron, none of which align with the structure commonly observed in viruses.