A patient of African descent is in the critical care unit to be monitored for shock after an accident. What skin characteristics would the nurse expect to find in this patient?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient of African descent is in the critical care unit to be monitored for shock after an accident. What skin characteristics would the nurse expect to find in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ashen, grey, or dull. In patients of African descent, skin characteristics may appear ashen, grey, or dull when experiencing shock due to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery. This is because the skin may appear pale or lacking in color due to decreased perfusion. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Ruddy blue - Ruddy blue skin color is not typically associated with shock in patients of African descent. B: Generalized pallor - Generalized pallor refers to an overall paleness of the skin, which is not commonly seen in patients of African descent during shock. D: Patchy areas of pallor - Patchy areas of pallor suggest uneven skin color changes, which are not typically characteristic of shock in patients of African descent.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about managing diabetic neuropathy. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I can wear tight shoes to avoid blisters." Tight shoes can increase pressure on the feet, leading to blisters and worsening neuropathy symptoms. A: Inspecting feet daily is important to catch any issues early. C: Walking barefoot can increase the risk of injuries. D: Maintaining blood glucose levels within target range is crucial for managing diabetic neuropathy. In summary, the incorrect choices either provide important preventive measures or focus on key aspects of diabetes management, while the correct choice suggests a harmful behavior that can exacerbate neuropathy symptoms.

Question 3 of 9

Which organ is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. The liver is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen through various pathways, including glucuronidation, sulfation, and oxidation. It converts acetaminophen into less toxic metabolites for elimination. The kidneys (B) primarily filter blood and regulate fluid balance; the lungs (C) are involved in gas exchange; and the pancreas (D) produces digestive enzymes and insulin, not involved in acetaminophen metabolism. Therefore, the liver is the correct choice for this question.

Question 4 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a history of seizures?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiepileptics. This is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a history of seizures as antiepileptic medications help prevent or reduce the frequency of seizures. Monitoring vital signs (B) is important but does not directly address the underlying issue of seizures. Oxygen therapy (C) may be needed during a seizure but does not prevent future episodes. Monitoring ECG (D) may provide information on cardiac function but is not the primary intervention for seizures. Administering antiepileptics is essential for seizure management.

Question 5 of 9

Which choice is *not* allowed when planning care for a client undergoing diagnostic genetic counseling?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because completing the grieving process before birth is not appropriate when planning care for a client undergoing genetic counseling. This is because genetic counseling aims to provide information and support to help clients make informed decisions about their pregnancy or future child's health. Grieving before birth implies assuming a negative outcome before all information is gathered, which can be premature and may not align with the purpose of genetic counseling. Choices A, B, and C are allowed as they involve valid actions such as decision-making, preparation, and accessing support services, all of which are important aspects of genetic counseling.

Question 6 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for serosanguineous drainage after cholecystectomy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: Reinforce the dressing is the correct intervention for serosanguineous drainage after cholecystectomy. This helps maintain a clean and dry wound environment, promotes healing, and prevents infection. Changing the dressing (B) may disrupt the wound healing process. Notifying the physician (A) is important but not the immediate intervention. Applying an abdominal binder (D) is not indicated for managing serosanguineous drainage.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of culturally competent care?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Culturally competent care involves applying knowledge, skills, attitudes, and personal attributes to provide respectful and effective care. Step 2: Understanding and speaking the patient's mother tongue (Option A) is important but not sufficient for culturally competent care. Step 3: Possessing basic knowledge of the patient's cultural background (Option B) is helpful, but not comprehensive enough to ensure culturally competent care. Step 4: Having knowledge of the significance of social, economic, and cultural contexts (Option C) is crucial but does not encompass the full scope of culturally competent care. Step 5: The correct answer, D, encompasses the holistic approach needed for culturally competent care by emphasizing the application of knowledge, skills, attitudes, and personal attributes to maximize respect and care.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of fluid overload?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Swelling in the legs and shortness of breath. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Swelling in the legs (edema) is a classic sign of fluid overload as the fluid pools in the lower extremities. Shortness of breath occurs due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, causing difficulty in breathing. Weight loss and increased appetite (A) are not typical signs of fluid overload. Increased urine output and dehydration (B) are more indicative of fluid deficit. Nausea and vomiting (D) can occur in various conditions but are not specific to fluid overload in heart failure.

Question 9 of 9

What is the first action the nurse should take when a client presents with signs of respiratory distress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Open the airway. This is the first action because in respiratory distress, ensuring a clear airway is crucial for adequate oxygenation. Opening the airway helps facilitate breathing and prevents further complications. Administering oxygen (choice B) can be done after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering medication (choice C) and pain relief (choice D) are not the initial priority in managing respiratory distress.

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