ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain's vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life during treatment.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patients needs for physical activity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For patients undergoing consolidation therapy for leukemia, severe fatigue is a common side effect of treatment due to factors such as anemia, decreased nutritional intake, and the body's response to chemotherapy. While exercise is beneficial, the patient's fatigue may limit their ability to engage in strenuous activity. Assisting the patient to sit in a chair during awake times is a practical way to encourage some physical activity while respecting their fatigue levels. This intervention helps prevent complications associated with immobility, such as muscle atrophy and venous stasis, without overwhelming the patient. It allows the patient to engage in light activity that is manageable and promotes recovery.
Question 3 of 9
A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.
Question 4 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain's vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life during treatment.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse working with oncology clients knows that an age-related decrease in which function increases the older client's susceptibility to infection during chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: As people age, the immune system becomes less efficient, a phenomenon known as immunosenescence. This decline in immune function includes reduced production of immune cells (such as T cells and B cells) and diminished responses to infections. During chemotherapy, which further suppresses the immune system, older clients are at a significantly higher risk of developing infections due to this age-related decrease in immune function. This is especially concerning because chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include immune cells, making it even harder for the body to fight off infections.
Question 6 of 9
The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.
Question 7 of 9
A patient was admitted with gastric cancer. The patient asks the nurse about things to expect while receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following statements of the nurse shows incompetence?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While hair loss (alopecia) is a common side effect of chemotherapy due to the damage to rapidly dividing hair follicle cells, the statement that hair will grow back "immediately" is inaccurate and misleading. Hair regrowth after chemotherapy takes time, typically starting a few weeks to months after treatment ends. The new hair may also have a different texture or color initially. Therefore, this statement indicates a lack of understanding and could give the patient unrealistic expectations, which is why it shows incompetence.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.