ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain's vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life during treatment.
Question 2 of 9
A patient admitted with cancer asks the nurse about the difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following responses by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While chemotherapy does affect normal, healthy cells-particularly those that divide rapidly-it is not "more likely" to kill normal cells compared to cancer cells. Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which includes both cancer cells and some normal cells (like those in hair follicles, the gastrointestinal tract, and bone marrow). However, its primary goal is to kill cancer cells, and its effects on normal cells are a side effect, not the main function. Therefore, the statement that chemotherapy is "more likely" to kill normal cells is inaccurate and indicates a need for further teaching.
Question 3 of 9
A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient's risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In oncology patients, particularly those undergoing chemotherapy or radiation therapy, myelosuppression (the decrease in bone marrow activity that leads to reduced white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets) increases the risk of infection. Maintaining skin integrity is crucial because the skin acts as the body's first line of defense against infections. If the skin becomes compromised, such as through radiation burns, rashes, or breakdowns, it provides a potential entry point for pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Since infections in oncology patients can quickly become severe due to their weakened immune systems, maintaining skin integrity is a critical intervention to reduce infection risk, especially for patients who are immunosuppressed.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a patient with leukemia who has been experiencing severe fatigue. What is the most appropriate intervention to include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with leukemia, severe fatigue is a common symptom due to factors such as anemia, the disease process itself, and the effects of treatments like chemotherapy. The most appropriate intervention is to schedule frequent rest periods to help manage fatigue while encouraging a balance between rest and activity. This approach allows the patient to conserve energy for essential tasks and prevent exhaustion, without promoting complete inactivity, which can lead to deconditioning.
Question 7 of 9
The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in women who are at high risk, particularly those with a family history of the disease or a positive genetic test for BRCA mutations. Large-scale studies have demonstrated that tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by up to 50% in high-risk women. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, which helps prevent the development of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancers.
Question 8 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has taught a client with cancer ways to prevent infection. What statement by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with cancer, especially those undergoing chemotherapy or other immunosuppressive treatments, are at increased risk for infections due to a weakened immune system. Changing a litter box exposes the client to pathogens such as Toxoplasma gondii and other harmful bacteria or parasites found in cat feces, which could lead to serious infections. It is recommended that immunocompromised individuals avoid activities like changing litter boxes to reduce their risk of exposure to infectious agents. A family member or caregiver should handle this task to protect the client.