ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient nearing death experiences increased secretions and noisy breathing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer anticholinergic medications as prescribed. Anticholinergic medications can help dry up secretions and improve breathing in a patient nearing death. This intervention targets the underlying cause of increased secretions. Suctioning (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root issue. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning (choice C) can help with comfort but do not directly address the secretions. Restricting oral intake (choice D) may lead to dehydration and discomfort without effectively managing the secretions. Administering anticholinergic medications is the priority as it directly targets the symptom of increased secretions, improving the patient's comfort and quality of life.
Question 2 of 9
The family of a critically ill patient has asked to discuss organ donation with the patient’s nurse. When preparing to answer the family’s questions, th e nurse understands which concern(s) most often influence a family’s decision to donate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Donor disfigurement influences on funeral care. Families often consider the impact of organ donation on the appearance of their loved one during funeral arrangements. This concern can significantly influence their decision to donate. Incorrect Answers: B: Fear of inferior medical care provided to donor. This is not a common concern as medical care for donors is typically of high quality. C: Age and location of all possible organ recipients. While important, this is not a primary concern for families when deciding on organ donation. D: Concern that donated organs will not be used. Families are generally more concerned about the impact on their loved one's appearance post-donation rather than the utilization of organs.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion. - C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death. - D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
Question 4 of 9
A patient’s ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia. The fraction of inspired oxygen is increased from.60 to.70, and the positive end-expiratory pressure is increased from 10 to 15 cm H O. Shortly after these adjustments, the nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure drops from 120/76 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What is the m ost likely cause of this decrease in blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemia. When the ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia by increasing FiO2 and PEEP, it can lead to increased oxygenation but also potentially decrease venous return to the heart, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This decrease in blood pressure is most likely due to hypovolemia, as the increased PEEP can increase intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and preload, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent decrease in blood pressure. This choice is the most likely cause as the other options (A: Decrease in cardiac output, C: Increase in venous return, D: Oxygen toxicity) do not directly correlate with the changes in ventilator settings described in the question.
Question 5 of 9
A 100-kg patient gets hemodialysis 3 days a week. In planning the care for this patient, the nurse recommends
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a diet of 2500 to 3500 kcal per day. During hemodialysis, the patient loses nutrients and energy, so a high-calorie diet is necessary to maintain proper nutrition and energy levels. 2500-3500 kcal/day is a suitable range for a 100-kg patient. Choice B is incorrect because protein intake should be adequate to prevent malnutrition in hemodialysis patients, typically 1.2g/kg body weight/day. Choice C is incorrect as potassium intake should be restricted in hemodialysis patients due to impaired kidney function. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be individualized based on the patient's fluid status and should not be limited to less than 500 mL per day.
Question 6 of 9
When caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension, which parameter is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). PVR is the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a patient with pulmonary hypertension as it directly reflects the resistance in the pulmonary circulation. A decrease in PVR indicates a reduction in the constriction of blood vessels in the lungs, suggesting improvement in pulmonary hypertension. Monitoring CVP (A) is more relevant in assessing fluid status, SVR (B) is more indicative of systemic vascular tone, and PAWP (D) is useful in assessing left-sided heart function, but they are not as specific to evaluating the effectiveness of treatment for pulmonary hypertension.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature suggest a serious complication like visceral perforation. Step 2: Peritoneal dialysate return assessment won't address the potential life-threatening issue. Step 3: Checking blood sugar or evaluating neurological status is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Step 4: Informing the provider of probable visceral perforation is crucial for prompt intervention and further evaluation.
Question 8 of 9
When performing an initial pulmonary artery occlusion pr essure (PAOP), what are the best nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. This is because inflating the balloon within this time frame allows for accurate measurement of PAOP without causing complications like pulmonary edema. Noting the waveform change helps in determining the accurate pressure reading. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: Inflating the balloon with air and recording the volume necessary is not a recommended practice as it can lead to inaccurate readings and potential harm to the patient. C: Maintaining the balloon inflated for 8 hours following insertion is unnecessary and could lead to complications such as vascular damage or thrombosis. D: Zero referencing and leveling the transducer at the phlebostatic axis are important steps but not directly related to performing an initial PAOP measurement.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following are components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement’s (IHI’s) ventilator bundle? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because interrupting sedation daily to assess readiness to extubate is a key component of IHI's ventilator bundle to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. This practice helps prevent over-sedation, reduce the duration of mechanical ventilation, and decrease the risk of complications. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect as they are not specific components of the IHI's ventilator bundle. Maintaining head of bed elevation, providing deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis, and prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease are important aspects of critical care but are not directly related to the ventilator bundle protocol outlined by IHI.