A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The pt asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a drug with a lethal dose. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) It is a value determined during research, which helps to determine the safe dose to give. Explanation: In pharmacology, the concept of lethal dose (LD50) is crucial in determining the safety and dosage of a drug. LD50 refers to the dose of a drug that would be lethal in 50% of the population. This value is determined through extensive research and testing to establish the safe and effective dose range for a drug. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to understand this value to ensure safe administration of medications to patients. Why others are wrong: B) All drugs have a lethal dose, so don’t worry - This statement is incorrect as not all drugs have the same lethal dose, and it is essential to consider the therapeutic index and individual variability. C) That’s only if you take too much - This option oversimplifies the concept of lethal dose and fails to address the importance of understanding safe dosage ranges. D) The doctor knows best - While healthcare providers should be trusted, it is crucial for patients to be informed and understand the rationale behind their treatment to actively participate in their care. Educational context: Understanding pharmacology concepts like lethal dose is vital for healthcare professionals to ensure safe medication administration and educate patients effectively. By explaining the rationale behind drug dosages, nurses can empower patients to take an active role in their treatment and make informed decisions regarding their health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Benzodiazepines are not typically used to treat COPD manifestations; they are anxiolytics or sedatives that can depress respiration, which is counterproductive in COPD management. Bronchodilators (e.g., beta-2 agonists), methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline), and anticholinergics (e.g., ipratropium) are standard treatments that help relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Crushing this medication can cause severe toxicity like respiratory arrest. Explanation: Theophylline is a medication that is commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is a sustained-release formulation designed to release the medication slowly over time to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Crushing a sustained-release tablet can lead to the rapid release of a large dose of the medication, potentially causing toxicity, including respiratory arrest. Why others are wrong: A) Crushing this medication does not cause hypoglycemia but rather respiratory toxicity. B) Crushing this medication does not lead to acute kidney damage like end-stage renal disease (ESRD). C) Crushing this medication is not about ruining a snack but rather about the serious health consequences it can have. Educational context: It is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the implications of altering medication formulations, especially when it comes to sustained-release formulations like Theophylline. Patients with dysphagia may request such alterations for ease of administration, but it is essential to educate them on the risks involved and explore alternative administration methods with their healthcare provider to ensure safety and efficacy of treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a patient with Cystic Fibrosis, understanding the pharmacological action of Acetylcysteine is crucial. The correct answer is A) thin and enhance the flow of secretions in the respiratory passages. Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic agent that works by breaking disulfide bonds in mucus, making it less viscous and easier to clear from the airways. This action helps to improve respiratory function in patients with conditions like Cystic Fibrosis. Option B) dilate the upper respiratory passageways is incorrect as Acetylcysteine does not have bronchodilator properties. Option C) agonize respiratory b2 adrenergic receptors and Option D) antagonize al cholinergic receptors are also incorrect as they do not represent the mechanism of action of Acetylcysteine. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological actions of medications used in specific conditions like Cystic Fibrosis is vital for nurses to provide safe and effective care. Knowing how Acetylcysteine works helps nurses anticipate its effects, monitor for therapeutic outcomes, and recognize and manage any potential side effects or complications. This knowledge enhances nursing practice and contributes to improved patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) 2nd generation H1 antagonists because they are designed to have less affinity for the cholinergic receptors, thus reducing the likelihood of causing anticholinergic effects like dry mouth and constipation. 1st generation H1 antagonists (Option A) such as diphenhydramine commonly cause anticholinergic effects due to their ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and affect central cholinergic receptors. Intranasal antihistamines (Option C) like azelastine can also lead to anticholinergic effects due to their systemic absorption. Gamma-3 muscarinic receptor agonists (Option D) would not cause anticholinergic effects as they are designed to activate muscarinic receptors, which is opposite to the mechanism of anticholinergic drugs. In an educational context, understanding the differences in drug classes and their potential side effects is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing medications, especially in vulnerable populations such as the elderly where anticholinergic effects can have significant implications on health and quality of life.