ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is using laxatives three times dailyto lose weight. After stopping laxative use, the patient has difficulty with constipation and wonders if laxatives should be taken again. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term laxative use can lead to the bowel becoming less responsive to stimuli, resulting in constipation. This is due to the body becoming dependent on laxatives to stimulate bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as laxatives typically do not cause trauma or scarring to the intestinal lining. Choice C is incorrect because while emollient laxatives can be helpful for constipation, long-term use is not recommended due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect because laxatives do not directly cause malnourishment or prevent waste production.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing the health care disparitiesamong population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accessibility of health care services. The nurse is monitoring disparities in access to healthcare services among different population groups. This is important as it can influence health outcomes and the prevalence of complications. Outcomes of health conditions (B) are impacted by access to care. Prevalence of complications (C) and incidence of diseases (D) can also be influenced by disparities in accessing healthcare services. However, the primary focus of the nurse's assessment in this scenario is on the accessibility of healthcare services as a key factor contributing to health care disparities.
Question 3 of 9
A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patients blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report to the emergency department or employee health department. 1. Immediate action is crucial after exposure to HIV-positive blood. 2. Reporting to the emergency department or employee health department ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate management. 3. The supervisor should also be informed to initiate the necessary protocols. 4. The other choices are incorrect: - A: Chlorhexidine may not be sufficient for post-exposure prophylaxis. - C: Hydrocolloid dressing is not appropriate for managing needlestick injuries. - D: Following up with the primary care provider may cause delays in receiving timely post-exposure prophylaxis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) in a state of anaphylaxis. What is the ED nurses priority for care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protect the patient's airway. In anaphylaxis, airway compromise can lead to respiratory distress and even respiratory arrest. The priority is to ensure the patient has a patent airway to maintain oxygenation. This can be achieved through interventions such as positioning, oxygen therapy, and potentially intubation if needed. Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness (A) is important but secondary to ensuring airway patency. Providing psychosocial support (C) is not the immediate priority in anaphylaxis. Administering medications (D) is also important but only after ensuring the airway is protected.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse believes that the nurse-patient relationshipis a partnership and that both are equal participants. Which term should the nurse use to describe this belief?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct term to describe the belief that the nurse-patient relationship is a partnership where both are equal participants is "Mutuality" (C). This term emphasizes the idea of shared responsibility, respect, and collaboration between the nurse and the patient. It signifies a relationship built on equality and mutual understanding, fostering trust and positive outcomes. Choice A (Critical thinking) involves analyzing and evaluating information, which is essential for decision-making but does not directly reflect the equality and partnership aspect of the nurse-patient relationship. Choice B (Authentic) relates to being genuine and true to oneself, which is important in building trust but does not specifically address the equal participation aspect in the relationship. Choice D (Attend) means to be present or pay attention, which is a fundamental aspect of nursing care but does not capture the full essence of a partnership based on equality and mutual involvement.
Question 6 of 9
In providing diet education for a patient on a low-fat diet, which information is important for the nurse to share?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 63-year-old patient with ovarian cancer. The patient is to receive chemotherapy consisting of Taxol and Paraplatin. For what adverse effect of this treatment should the nurse monitor the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Taxol and Paraplatin are known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased white blood cell counts. Leukopenia can increase the patient's risk of infection, so monitoring for signs of infection is crucial. Metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with Taxol and Paraplatin chemotherapy.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is ready to be discharged home after a cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant and the nurse is reviewing signs and symptoms that need to be reported to the ophthalmologist immediately. Which of the patients statements best demonstrates an adequate understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to call the doctor if I see flashing lights." This is because seeing flashing lights after cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant can be a sign of a serious complication like retinal detachment. Prompt reporting is crucial to prevent vision loss. Choice A is incorrect because nausea is not typically a sign of a complication related to cataract surgery. Choice B is also incorrect as a light morning discharge is normal post-surgery unless it's excessive or associated with pain or visual changes. Choice C is incorrect as a scratchy feeling is common after surgery and usually resolves on its own.
Question 9 of 9
Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. The only known cure for preeclampsia is the delivery of the fetus, as this condition typically resolves after giving birth. Since preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby, delivering the fetus is the most effective way to stop the progression of the condition. Magnesium sulfate (choice A) is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia but does not cure the condition. Antihypertensive medications (choice C) are used to manage blood pressure in preeclampsia but do not cure it. Administration of aspirin (choice D) is used for prevention, not as a cure for preeclampsia.