ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is using laxatives three times dailyto lose weight. After stopping laxative use, the patient has difficulty with constipation and wonders if laxatives should be taken again. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term laxative use can lead to the bowel becoming less responsive to stimuli, resulting in constipation. This is due to the body becoming dependent on laxatives to stimulate bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as laxatives typically do not cause trauma or scarring to the intestinal lining. Choice C is incorrect because while emollient laxatives can be helpful for constipation, long-term use is not recommended due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect because laxatives do not directly cause malnourishment or prevent waste production.
Question 2 of 9
Massage around the feces and work down to remove.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the massage is to start around the feces (4), then work downwards (1), followed by moving towards the sides (5), then back to the top (2), continuing to the sides again (3), and finally finishing at the top (6). This sequence ensures a thorough and effective massage process. Other choices have different orders that do not follow the logical flow of massaging around the feces and working down as specified in the question.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 4 of 9
Which factor is most importaNnt iRn diIminGishiBng. mCateMrnal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a U S N T O pregnant patient with diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy. Proper glycemic control is crucial in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes. Uncontrolled blood sugar levels can lead to maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications. Monitoring and maintaining stable blood glucose levels before and during pregnancy help reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. A: Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist - Although important for overall health, retinopathy does not directly impact maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in diabetes during pregnancy. B: The patient’s stable emotional and psychological status - While emotional and psychological well-being are important, they do not directly affect complications related to diabetes in pregnancy. D: Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits - While these are indicators of kidney function, they are not the most crucial factors in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has sought care, stating that she developed hives overnight. The nurses inspection confirms the presence of urticaria. What type of allergic hypersensitivity reaction has the patient developed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse needs to know how to find, evaluate, and use information effectively.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clinical decision support system. A clinical decision support system is a type of system or design that helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in making clinical decisions by providing them with relevant information and knowledge. This system assists in analyzing data to generate patient-specific recommendations or alerts to improve patient care. In the given scenario, the nurse's need to find, evaluate, and use information effectively aligns with the purpose of a clinical decision support system. This system enables the nurse to access evidence-based information, guidelines, and recommendations to enhance their decision-making process and improve patient outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Computer competency does not equate to informatics competency. While computer skills are important, informatics involves a deeper understanding of using information effectively in practice. B: This choice provides a detailed explanation of informatics but does not directly address the type of system or design the nurse would be using to find, evaluate, and use information effectively. D: Nursing process
Question 7 of 9
A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because acknowledging the patient's fear validates their emotions, builds trust, and shows empathy. This can help the patient feel understood and supported during a vulnerable time. Choice B is incorrect because discussing support groups may not address the patient's immediate emotional needs. Choice C is incorrect because assessing stress management skills may not be the priority at this moment when the patient is visibly tense. Choice D is incorrect because documenting a nursing diagnosis should come after addressing the patient's immediate emotional state.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient has just been given a 6-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive stage small-cell lung cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the patients care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discuss a referral for hospice care. Hospice care provides specialized care for patients with terminal illnesses, focusing on comfort and quality of life. This option aligns with the patient's wish to die at home and ensures his care needs are met. Hospice care also provides emotional and spiritual support for both the patient and family. A: Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital - This option focuses on rehabilitation, which is not suitable for a patient with a terminal illness like extensive stage small-cell lung cancer. B: Panel the patient for a personal care home - Personal care homes may not provide the level of specialized care needed for a terminally ill patient. C: Discuss a referral for acute care - Acute care is more focused on treating acute illnesses and injuries, not providing end-of-life care for a patient with a terminal illness.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.