ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: damage to the trigeminal nerve. Trigeminal nerve damage can result in the inability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations on the face. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain. Bell's palsy (choice A) affects facial muscles, not sensory perception. Frostbite (choice C) typically causes numbness rather than loss of sensation discrimination. Scleroderma (choice D) is a connective tissue disorder that does not directly affect sensory perception on the face.
Question 2 of 9
When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, which of the following would the nurse need to do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, it is crucial to avoid touching the nasal septum with the speculum to prevent discomfort or injury to the patient. Touching the nasal septum can cause pain and potential damage. Incorrect Choices: A: Inserting the speculum at least 3 cm into the vestibule is not necessary and may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. C: Displacing the nose to the side being examined is not required and may not provide any additional benefit during the assessment. D: Keeping the speculum tip medial to avoid touching the floor of the nares is not as critical as avoiding contact with the nasal septum, which is more sensitive and can be easily injured.
Question 3 of 9
A very concerned mother is at the clinic with her infant who has a large, soft lump on the side of his head. She tells the nurse that she noticed the lump about 8 hours after her baby's birth and that it seems to be getting bigger. One possible explanation for this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cephalhematoma. A cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum, typically occurring due to trauma during birth. In this case, the lump appeared 8 hours after birth, which aligns with the timeline for cephalhematoma development. It is soft because it consists of blood, and it can increase in size as the blood accumulates. Incorrect Choices: A: Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain, not a collection of blood. B: Craniosynostosis is the premature fusion of skull bones, leading to an abnormal head shape, not a collection of blood. D: Caput succedaneum is swelling of the soft tissues of a newborn's scalp due to pressure during delivery, not a collection of blood.
Question 4 of 9
While performing a mouth assessment on a patient, the nurse notices a 1-cm ulceration that is crusted and has an elevated border. It is located on the outer third of the lower lip. What other information would be most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: When the patient first noticed the lesion. This information is crucial for determining the duration of the ulceration, aiding in diagnosing potential causes like trauma or infections. Nutritional status (Choice A) may not be directly related to the specific lesion. Whether the patient has had a recent cold (Choice C) is less relevant unless there are other symptoms present. Exposure to sick animals (Choice D) is not pertinent to the mouth ulceration. Therefore, obtaining information on when the patient first noticed the lesion is the most important for proper assessment and treatment planning.
Question 5 of 9
A patient's laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The nurse would examine the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
Question 6 of 9
During history-taking, a patient tells the nurse that he has frequent nosebleeds and asks about the best way to prevent them. What would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient experiences nosebleeds, the best way to stop it is by sitting straight with the head tilted slightly forward and pinching the nose firmly for about 10-15 minutes. This position helps reduce blood flow to the nose and promotes clotting. It is important not to tilt the head back as it can lead to blood going down the throat and potentially causing choking or vomiting. Cold compresses can also be applied to help constrict blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the proper technique for managing nosebleeds and can potentially worsen the situation.
Question 7 of 9
The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate explanation for the frequent ear infections in the 2-year-old. The eustachian tube in children is indeed shorter and wider compared to adults, making it easier for infections to develop. This anatomical difference predisposes young children to ear infections. Choice A is incorrect because it falsely implies that frequent ear infections in small children are unusual only if something else is wrong. Choice B is incorrect as checking the immune system is not typically the first step in addressing recurrent ear infections. Choice C is incorrect as cerumen (earwax) does not directly contribute to ear infections in the middle ear.
Question 8 of 9
During a checkup, a 22-year-old woman tells the nurse that she uses an over-the-counter nasal spray for her allergies. She also reports that it does not work as well as it used to. The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because over-the-counter nasal sprays, especially those containing decongestants, can lead to rebound swelling when used for an extended period. Rebound swelling occurs when the nasal passages become more congested after the effects of the medication wear off. This can result in a cycle of dependency on the nasal spray to alleviate symptoms, leading to worsening congestion over time. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this potential risk and suggest alternative treatment options to address her allergies effectively without causing rebound swelling. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A: Incorrect, as not all over-the-counter nasal sprays carry a risk of addiction. B: Incorrect, as switching to another brand may not address the underlying issue of rebound swelling. C: Incorrect, as continuous use of the nasal spray without addressing rebound swelling can exacerbate the problem.
Question 9 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.