ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is treated with IV methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol) for emphysema. What is the purpose of corticosteroid treatment in lung disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce airway inflammation. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are used in emphysema to reduce inflammation in the airways, which can help improve lung function and symptoms. Corticosteroids work by suppressing the immune response that leads to inflammation in the airways. This can help decrease swelling, mucus production, and constriction of the airways, all of which contribute to the symptoms of emphysema. Dry secretions (choice A) and improving oxygen-carrying capacity (choice B) are not the primary purposes of corticosteroid treatment in emphysema. Treating infection that causes a low level of hemoglobin (choice C) is not relevant to corticosteroid treatment for emphysema.
Question 2 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Question 4 of 9
Hypernatremia is associated with a:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Hypernatremia is defined by elevated serum sodium levels (>145mEq/L). Step 2: Serum osmolality of 245mOsm/kg is high, consistent with hypernatremia. Step 3: Urine specific gravity below 1.003 indicates dilute urine, a common finding in hypernatremia. Step 4: The combination of elevated serum sodium, high serum osmolality, and low urine specific gravity confirms hypernatremia. Summary: A: Incorrect, as high serum osmolality (not 245mOsm/kg) is associated with hypernatremia. B: Incorrect, as low urine specific gravity (not below 1.003) is seen in hypernatremia. C: Incorrect, as serum sodium needs to be >145mEq/L to indicate hypernatremia.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is evaluating whether patient goals and outcomes have been met for a patient with physical mobility problems due to a fractured leg. Which finding indicates the patient has met an expected outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient being able to ambulate in the hallway with crutches indicates that the expected outcome of improved physical mobility due to the fractured leg has been met. This demonstrates progress towards independence and recovery. A is incorrect because the patient still requires assistance, indicating dependency. C is incorrect because denial of pain does not necessarily indicate improved physical mobility. D is incorrect because it is too general and does not directly show achievement of the specific goal related to physical mobility.
Question 6 of 9
A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI. Thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count, which can lead to impaired blood clotting and potential bleeding. Ineffective tissue perfusion is the most critical concern as it can lead to life-threatening complications like hemorrhage. Activity intolerance, impaired tissue integrity, and impaired oral mucous membranes are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the risk of hemorrhage from thrombocytopenia.
Question 7 of 9
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In the scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after the patient complained of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process and involves collecting data to identify the patient's health status. By not reassessing the patient's vital signs and symptoms, the nurse missed an opportunity to detect the worsening condition. The other choices are incorrect because the error occurred before diagnosis (B), implementation (C), and evaluation (D) phases. In diagnosis, the nurse identifies the patient's problems; in implementation, the nurse carries out the care plan; and in evaluation, the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions.
Question 8 of 9
For a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, the physician prescribes the corticosteroid prednisone (Deltasone). When caring for this client, the nurse should monitor for which adverse drug reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adverse reactions such as increased weight due to fluid retention, hypertension due to sodium retention, and insomnia due to its stimulating effects. Vaginal bleeding, jaundice, inflammation, stupor, breast lumps, pain, dyspnea, numbness, and headache are not commonly associated with prednisone use. Monitoring for weight changes, blood pressure, and sleep patterns is essential when administering prednisone to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for early detection and management of adverse reactions.
Question 9 of 9
A client is hospitalized with oat cell carcinoma of the lung. To manage severe pain, the physician prescribes a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Which formula should the nurse use to check that the morphine dose is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct formula to calculate the appropriate morphine dose for the client is 5 mg/kg of body weight. This is the most suitable formula because morphine dosing is typically based on weight to ensure appropriate pain management and to prevent adverse effects. By using this formula, the nurse can calculate the exact dose based on the client's weight, providing personalized care. Choice A (1 mg/kg of body weight) is too low of a dose and may not effectively manage severe pain. Choice B (5 mg/70kg of body weight) is not ideal as it does not account for variations in weight among individuals. Choice D (10mg/70kg of body weight) would result in an overdose for most patients, potentially causing serious harm. Therefore, by using the formula of 5 mg/kg of body weight, the nurse can ensure that the morphine dose is appropriate and safe for the client.