ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is treated with IV methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol) for emphysema. What is the purpose of corticosteroid treatment in lung disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce airway inflammation. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are used in emphysema to reduce inflammation in the airways, which can help improve lung function and symptoms. Corticosteroids work by suppressing the immune response that leads to inflammation in the airways. This can help decrease swelling, mucus production, and constriction of the airways, all of which contribute to the symptoms of emphysema. Dry secretions (choice A) and improving oxygen-carrying capacity (choice B) are not the primary purposes of corticosteroid treatment in emphysema. Treating infection that causes a low level of hemoglobin (choice C) is not relevant to corticosteroid treatment for emphysema.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assigned to a client with polymyositis. Which expected outcome in the plan of care relates to a potential problem associated with polymyositis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Polymyositis can affect muscles involved in swallowing, leading to aspiration risk. Therefore, it's crucial for the client to exhibit no signs or symptoms of aspiration. Choice A is unrelated to polymyositis. Choice C involves issues with muscle weakness rather than aspiration risk. Choice D relates to cognitive function, not a common issue with polymyositis.
Question 3 of 9
Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3. This is because a low WBC count indicates potential bone marrow suppression from the drug. Resuming treatment at this point ensures the bone marrow has recovered enough to handle the drug's effects. Summary: - Choice B: Hair regrowth is not a reliable indicator of bone marrow recovery. - Choice C: A high WBC count suggests potential toxicity, not readiness for treatment. - Choice D: Anemia is a late sign of bone marrow suppression, not an appropriate indicator to resume treatment.
Question 4 of 9
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with Addison’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Excessive fluid volume. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone leading to sodium loss and water retention. This imbalance can result in excessive fluid volume. A) Risk for infection is not directly related to Addison's disease. B) Urinary retention is not a common symptom of Addison's disease. D) Hypothermia is not a typical manifestation of Addison's disease.
Question 5 of 9
A client is hospitalized with oat cell carcinoma of the lung. To manage severe pain, the physician prescribes a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Which formula should the nurse use to check that the morphine dose is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct formula to calculate the appropriate morphine dose for the client is 5 mg/kg of body weight. This is the most suitable formula because morphine dosing is typically based on weight to ensure appropriate pain management and to prevent adverse effects. By using this formula, the nurse can calculate the exact dose based on the client's weight, providing personalized care. Choice A (1 mg/kg of body weight) is too low of a dose and may not effectively manage severe pain. Choice B (5 mg/70kg of body weight) is not ideal as it does not account for variations in weight among individuals. Choice D (10mg/70kg of body weight) would result in an overdose for most patients, potentially causing serious harm. Therefore, by using the formula of 5 mg/kg of body weight, the nurse can ensure that the morphine dose is appropriate and safe for the client.
Question 6 of 9
A guest who is diabetic attended a bridal affair. The guest started to tremble and started to feel dizzy. Luckily a nurse is present. The best action for the nurse to take is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: give the guest a glass of orange juice. This is the best action because the guest is likely experiencing hypoglycemia due to being diabetic. Orange juice contains fast-acting sugar that can quickly raise blood sugar levels. Encouraging the guest to eat some (choice A) may take longer to have an effect. Calling the guest's personal hygiene (choice B) is irrelevant to the situation. Offering the guest a peppermint (choice C) will not effectively raise blood sugar levels.
Question 7 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 8 of 9
Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.
Question 9 of 9
Aling Nena, 68 years old, had a MVA and underwent surgery for hip fracture. Two days post-surgery, she suddenly complained of chest heaviness despite the absence of cardiac history. What is the nursing priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: administer oxygen via face mask. Given Aling Nena's sudden chest heaviness post-surgery, oxygen administration is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This can help rule out potential respiratory issues or hypoxemia, which are common post-operatively. Providing oxygen promptly can prevent further complications such as respiratory distress or cardiac compromise. Documenting the pain characteristics (choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate physiological needs are met. Offering analgesics (choice B) without confirming the underlying cause can mask symptoms and delay appropriate interventions. Informing the physician (choice D) is important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory compromise.