ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is treated with IV methylprednisolone (Solu-medrol) for emphysema. What is the purpose of corticosteroid treatment in lung disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce airway inflammation. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are used in emphysema to reduce inflammation in the airways, which can help improve lung function and symptoms. Corticosteroids work by suppressing the immune response that leads to inflammation in the airways. This can help decrease swelling, mucus production, and constriction of the airways, all of which contribute to the symptoms of emphysema. Dry secretions (choice A) and improving oxygen-carrying capacity (choice B) are not the primary purposes of corticosteroid treatment in emphysema. Treating infection that causes a low level of hemoglobin (choice C) is not relevant to corticosteroid treatment for emphysema.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse observes the temperature record of a client and relates the fever to the brain infection the client currently has. The nurse knows that a high temperature may lead to an increased cerebral irritation. Which of the ff measures can help the nurse control the clients body temperature? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing tepid sponge bath. This measure helps lower body temperature through evaporation of water from the skin. It is effective in managing fever without causing shivering or discomfort. Ice packs (B) can lead to vasoconstriction and shivering, raising body temperature. Antipyretics (C) are drugs that can reduce fever but may not address the underlying cause. Keeping the room warm (D) can exacerbate fever by hindering heat dissipation.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. does the nurse understand are the reasons a patient with pulmonary edema is given morphine sulphate? i.To reduce anxiety iv.To increase BP ii.To relieve chest pain v.To reduce preload and afterload iii.To strengthen heart contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because morphine sulfate is given to a patient with pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety (i) and to reduce preload and afterload (v). Morphine sulfate does not increase blood pressure (ii), relieve chest pain (iii), or strengthen heart contractions (iv) in the context of pulmonary edema. Choice A is incorrect because it includes increasing BP, which is not a reason for giving morphine sulfate in this case. Choice B is incorrect because it includes strengthening heart contractions, which is not a reason for administering morphine sulfate. Choice D is incorrect because it includes relieving chest pain, which is not a primary purpose of giving morphine sulfate to a patient with pulmonary edema.
Question 4 of 9
Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.
Question 5 of 9
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In this scenario, the nurse failed to complete a thorough assessment by not informing the nurse about the patient's condition. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to identify the patient's problems. By not communicating the patient's symptoms to the nurse, the nurse missed crucial information that could have led to timely intervention. Explanation of other choices: B: Diagnosis - The nurse did not have the opportunity to make a diagnosis because the assessment phase was incomplete. C: Implementation - The nurse did not reach the implementation phase yet as the assessment phase was not properly conducted. D: Evaluation - The nurse cannot evaluate the effectiveness of interventions as the assessment and subsequent phases were not properly carried out.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on the potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more detailed and insightful response. This open-ended question allows the patient to explore various factors contributing to their fatigue, such as lifestyle habits, medical conditions, or emotional stressors. Choice A focuses on stress, which may not be the primary cause of fatigue for the patient. Choice C is too specific and may not uncover other relevant information. Choice D assumes that sleep duration is the sole factor contributing to fatigue, neglecting other possible causes. Overall, choice B facilitates a more comprehensive discussion and helps the nurse gather valuable information to address the patient's concerns effectively.
Question 7 of 9
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, hormone replacement therapy is needed due to the removal of the pituitary gland. This surgery is typically done to treat pituitary carcinoma, making choice C the correct answer. Pituitary carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the pituitary gland. Esophageal carcinoma affects the esophagus, laryngeal carcinoma affects the larynx, and colorectal carcinoma affects the colon and rectum. Therefore, the correct choice, C, is the only one related to the pituitary gland and the procedure described.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. Reyea complains of hearing ringing noises. The nurse recognizes that this assessment suggests injury of the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear). Mr. Reyea's complaint of hearing ringing noises indicates a potential issue with his auditory function, which is primarily governed by the Vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting sound and balance information from the inner ear to the brain. The other choices, A: Frontal lobe, B: Six cranial nerve (abducent), and C: Occipital lobe, are not directly associated with auditory function or the perception of ringing noises in the ear.
Question 9 of 9
Wilma knew that the maximum time when suctioning James is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (30 seconds) because the maximum recommended time for suctioning a patient is typically around 10-15 seconds for each pass. Prolonged suctioning can lead to tissue damage, hypoxia, and increased risk of infection. In this case, given the patient's symptoms and medical history (vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, hypotension), it is crucial to limit suction time to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they exceed the safe duration for suctioning and increase the risk of harm to the patient. Choice D, in particular, is significantly longer than the recommended time and could pose serious risks to the patient's health in this situation.