ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).
Question 2 of 9
In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incomplete abortion at 16 weeks may require a D&C to remove remaining tissue to prevent infection and complications. Incomplete abortion means not all fetal tissue has been expelled, posing a risk. Choice A (complete abortion at 8 weeks) does not require a D&C as all tissue is expelled. Choice C (threatened abortion at 6 weeks) does not necessitate immediate intervention. Choice D (incomplete abortion at 10 weeks) is not the best choice as the risk of complications increases with gestational age.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red wine colored. Following a prostatectomy, continuous bladder irrigation is commonly used to prevent blood clots and ensure urine drainage. The output is expected to be red wine colored, indicating the presence of blood in the urine due to surgical trauma. Tea-colored (choice B) or amber (choice C) are not specific enough and do not accurately reflect the expected bloody output. Light pink (choice D) may suggest a lower level of bleeding compared to red wine color, but it is not the most accurate description for post-prostatectomy drainage.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nursemostlikely administer the feeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jejunostomy tube. This tube is chosen because the patient has a history of aspiration pneumonia, which puts them at risk for aspiration if feeds are administered into the stomach. By administering feeds through a jejunostomy tube, the risk of aspiration pneumonia is minimized as the feed bypasses the stomach. Nasogastric tube (A) and Nasointestinal tube (C) would still deliver feeds to the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration. PEG tube (D) is also not ideal as it delivers feeds directly to the stomach, which is not recommended for patients at risk for aspiration.
Question 5 of 9
A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer calcium gluconate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a low respiratory rate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction. Administering calcium gluconate helps reverse the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Increasing IV fluids (Choice A) is not directly related to treating respiratory depression. Vigorously stimulating the patient (Choice C) can exacerbate respiratory depression. Instructing the patient to take deep breaths (Choice D) may not be effective in addressing the underlying cause of respiratory depression due to magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 6 of 9
Which factor is most importaNnt iRn diIminGishiBng. mCateMrnal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a U S N T O pregnant patient with diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy. Proper glycemic control is crucial in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes. Uncontrolled blood sugar levels can lead to maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications. Monitoring and maintaining stable blood glucose levels before and during pregnancy help reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. A: Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist - Although important for overall health, retinopathy does not directly impact maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in diabetes during pregnancy. B: The patient’s stable emotional and psychological status - While emotional and psychological well-being are important, they do not directly affect complications related to diabetes in pregnancy. D: Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits - While these are indicators of kidney function, they are not the most crucial factors in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes.
Question 7 of 9
A family member of a patient diagnosed with Huntington disease calls you at the clinic. She is requesting help from the Huntingtons Disease Society of America. What kind of help can this patient and family receive from this organization? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about this disease. The Huntington's Disease Society of America provides valuable resources such as educational materials, support groups, and updates on research. This information can help patients and families understand the disease better and navigate available treatment options. Referrals, public education, individual assessments, and appraisals of research studies are not typically services provided directly by the organization, making them incorrect choices in this context.
Question 8 of 9
In providing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Saturated fat should be limited to less than 7% of total calories. This is because limiting saturated fat intake is crucial in managing type 1 diabetes to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Saturated fats can worsen insulin resistance and lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as diabetic management involves more than just insulin. Choice C is incorrect because nonnutritive sweeteners should be used in moderation due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with diabetes should aim to keep cholesterol intake low to prevent heart problems.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with Bells palsy. The nurses plan of care should address what characteristic manifestation of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. This manifests as drooping of the eyelid and corner of the mouth, difficulty smiling or closing the eye. Tinnitus (A) is ringing in the ears, not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Pain at the base of the tongue (C) is not a typical manifestation of Bell's palsy. Diplopia (D) is double vision, which is not a primary symptom of Bell's palsy. Therefore, the correct manifestation to address in the plan of care for a patient with Bell's palsy is facial paralysis.