ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has had a lumpectomy calls the clinic to talk to the nurse. The patient tells the nurse that she has developed a tender area on her breast that is red and warm and looks like someone drew a line with a red marker. What would the nurse suspect is the womans problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mondor disease. This condition presents as a superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast veins, causing a tender, red, warm, cord-like area resembling a red line. This is typically benign and self-limiting. B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the breast is unlikely as it typically involves deeper veins in the extremities. C: Recurrent malignancy is less likely as the symptoms described are more indicative of a benign condition like Mondor disease. D: An area of fat necrosis is also less likely as it usually presents as a painless, firm lump rather than a red, warm, tender area.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red wine colored. Following a prostatectomy, continuous bladder irrigation is commonly used to prevent blood clots and ensure urine drainage. The output is expected to be red wine colored, indicating the presence of blood in the urine due to surgical trauma. Tea-colored (choice B) or amber (choice C) are not specific enough and do not accurately reflect the expected bloody output. Light pink (choice D) may suggest a lower level of bleeding compared to red wine color, but it is not the most accurate description for post-prostatectomy drainage.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple- lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution. The first lumen inflates the balloon to secure the catheter in place. The second lumen allows continuous inflow of irrigation solution to prevent clot formation. The third lumen allows continuous outflow to ensure the bladder is continuously irrigated. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the functions of the three lumens in a transurethral resection of the prostate procedure.
Question 5 of 5
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.