A patient is to undergo an ultrasound-guided core biopsy. The patient tells the nurse that a friend of hers had a stereotactic core biopsy. She wants to understand the differences between the two procedures.What would be the nurses best response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an ultrasound-guided core biopsy is indeed faster, less expensive, and does not use radiation. - "Faster": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are typically quicker compared to stereotactic biopsies, as they are performed in real-time using ultrasound imaging. - "Less expensive": Ultrasound-guided biopsies are generally more cost-effective than stereotactic biopsies due to the equipment and resources required. - "Does not use radiation": Unlike stereotactic biopsies which involve the use of X-rays for guidance, ultrasound-guided biopsies do not expose the patient to radiation, making them safer in that aspect. The other choices are incorrect because they either inaccurately state that ultrasound-guided biopsies use radiation (C), take more time (D), or imply a slight increase in cost without highlighting the key advantages of speed and lack of radiation (B).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematologic spread. In this case, the cancer cells have traveled through the bloodstream to reach the bones and liver. This process is known as hematologic spread, where cancer cells enter the blood vessels and spread to distant organs. Lymphatic circulation (B) involves the spread of cancer cells through the lymphatic system, which is less likely in this scenario. Invasion (C) refers to cancer cells infiltrating nearby tissues, not distant organs. Angiogenesis (D) is the process of new blood vessel formation to support tumor growth, but it does not explain the spread of cancer cells to other organs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because saturated fats are primarily found in animal sources such as red meat, poultry, and dairy products. It is important to limit the intake of saturated fats on a low-fat diet to reduce the risk of heart disease and other health issues. A: Polyunsaturated fats are actually considered healthy fats and should not be restricted to less than 7% of total calories. B: Transfat is a type of unhealthy fat that should be avoided altogether, not just limited to 7% of total calories. C: Unsaturated fats are actually found mostly in plant-based sources like nuts, seeds, and avocados, not animal sources. In summary, choice D is correct because it provides accurate information about the source of saturated fats in animal products, while the other choices provide incorrect or misleading information about different types of fats.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer calcium gluconate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a low respiratory rate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction. Administering calcium gluconate helps reverse the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Increasing IV fluids (Choice A) is not directly related to treating respiratory depression. Vigorously stimulating the patient (Choice C) can exacerbate respiratory depression. Instructing the patient to take deep breaths (Choice D) may not be effective in addressing the underlying cause of respiratory depression due to magnesium sulfate toxicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the postpartum patient who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours should receive further assessment. This indicates excessive postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage), which is a critical complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of shock, evaluating uterine tone, and determining the cause of bleeding are crucial steps in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Choices B, C, and D are not the correct answers because: B: A patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing is more likely experiencing cardiac-related issues and requires evaluation and management by a cardiologist. C: A patient with gestational diabetes and a fasting blood sugar level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate further assessment. D: A postcesarean patient with active herpes lesions on the labia requires appropriate management of the herpes infection but does not necess

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because infants typically triple their birth weight by 1 year of age due to rapid growth and development. This information is crucial for understanding normal growth patterns in infants. Choice B is incorrect as picky eating behavior is common in toddlers but not a universal characteristic. Choice C is incorrect as school-age children can consume hot dogs and grapes safely as long as they are cut into appropriate sizes to prevent choking hazards. Choice D is incorrect as breastfeeding women actually need an additional 450-500 kcal/day, not 750 kcal/day.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient has diabetes. Diabetes can lead to diabetic retinopathy, a common cause of low vision. By knowing the patient's medical history, the nurse can recommend appropriate low vision aids and refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for further evaluation and management. Incorrect choices: A: The patient uses OTC NSAIDs - NSAIDs are not relevant to managing low vision. B: The patient has a history of stroke - A history of stroke is not directly related to low vision. D: The patient has Asian ancestry - Ancestry is not a factor in managing low vision.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholesteatoma. A red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is indicative of a cholesteatoma, which is a noncancerous cyst in the middle ear. This occurs due to the accumulation of skin cells and debris in the middle ear space. Other choices (A, C, D) are not associated with a red blemish on otoscopy. An acoustic tumor (A) typically presents as a slow-growing mass on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Facial nerve neuroma (C) involves the facial nerve and does not typically cause a red blemish. Glomus tympanicum (D) is a vascular tumor arising from the middle ear but does not usually present as a red blemish.