ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is taking the urinary antiseptic methenamine for a urinary tract infection (UTI). The nurse understands that this drug should not be given concurrently with which other drug to avoid crystalluria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Methenamine is a urinary antiseptic that works by converting to formaldehyde in the urine, creating an inhospitable environment for bacterial growth. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a sulfonamide antibiotic that can potentiate the formation of crystals in the urine (crystalluria). Therefore, giving methenamine and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole concurrently can increase the risk of crystalluria. It is important to avoid combining these two medications to prevent potential adverse effects on the urinary tract.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is to administer enteral medications to a patient who cannot swallow and is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which is correct concerning administration of the enteral medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liquid medications should be diluted before administration through a feeding tube to prevent clogging and ensure proper absorption. Adding medications to the enteral solution (A) is not recommended, as it can alter the formula's composition and stability.
Question 3 of 5
The following drugs must be avoided in severe renal failure (GFR ≤10 mL/min):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal failure due to the risk of lactic acidosis, a rare but potentially fatal side effect.
Question 4 of 5
A 28-year-old woman is admitted with suspected urinary sepsis (temperature 40.2°C, BP 84/50, pulse 128). She had a massive haemorrhage following the birth of her only child when she was aged 24; since then she has had no periods. Her partner says that she has been progressively listless and depressed for at least two years. There is left loin tenderness and she has no pubic or axillary hair. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sepsis (fever, hypotension) with post-partum hemorrhage history, amenorrhea, fatigue, and hair loss suggest Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary necrosis) causing adrenal insufficiency. Oral amoxicillin is inadequate for septic shock. IV hydrocortisone treats acute adrenal crisis, stabilizing BP and stress response, most appropriate here alongside antibiotics. Pelvic exam doesn't address urgency. Gonadotrophins or triiodothyronine target secondary issues, not immediate crisis. Hydrocortisone's rapid action is life-saving, addressing cortisol deficiency in this emergency.
Question 5 of 5
A 17-year-old client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for the treatment of seizures. Phenytoin blood level reveals to be 25 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of the laboratory result?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used to treat seizures. It has a narrow therapeutic range, and a blood level of 25 mcg/ml is considered to be high. At this level, patients are at risk for developing symptoms of phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus, which is an involuntary rapid eye movement, is a common symptom of phenytoin toxicity. Other symptoms of phenytoin toxicity may include ataxia, diplopia, slurred speech, confusion, and drowsiness. It is important to monitor phenytoin blood levels regularly to avoid toxicity and adjust the dose accordingly.