A patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression, and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat an infection. What will the nurse do?

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Effects of Pharmacological Treatments on Clients Across a Lifespan Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression, and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat an infection. What will the nurse do?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 5

Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 3 of 5

A thin older adult woman is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting, diarrhea, and poor intake of foods and fluids. She has not voided since admission. In preparing to care for this patient, the nurse will look for what laboratory values to help guide medication administration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

A patient who is at risk for osteoporosis will begin taking the selective estrogen receptor modulator raloxifene [Evista]. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching this patient about the medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator, mimics estrogen’s bone-protective effects but blocks its action in breast and uterine tissue, reducing breast cancer risk and not increasing endometrial cancer risk. It does, however, increase thromboembolism risk and commonly causes vasomotor symptoms like hot flashes due to its estrogen antagonism in certain tissues. Option D is correct as it highlights a frequent side effect.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse working in a family planning clinic is preparing to administer a first dose of intramuscular DMPA [Depo-Provera] to a young adult patient. The woman tells the nurse she has just finished her period. What will the nurse do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: DMPA is most safely initiated within the first 5 days of a menstrual cycle (post-period), ensuring no pregnancy exists, and provides immediate contraception coverage. Backup contraception (A) isn’t needed if given during this window, and a pregnancy test (C) or delay (D) is unnecessary given her timing, making option B correct.

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